1st PUC History Question Bank Chapter 1 Introduction to History

You can Download Chapter 1 Introduction to History Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC History Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC History Question Bank Chapter 1 Introduction to History

1st PUC History Introduction to History One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the word ‘History’?
Answer:
History means ‘Enquiry’ or Investigation.

Question 2.
From which language is the term ‘History’ derived.
Answer:
The term ‘History’ has been derived from the Greek word ‘Historia’, which means ‘Enquiry’ or Investigation.

Question 3.
Who is called as ‘The father of History’?
Answer:
Herodotus the Greek Historian is regarded as the father of History.

Question 4.
To which country did Herodotus belong?
Answer:
Herodotus belonged to Greece.

Question 5.
Mention the work of Herodotus.
Answer:
The work of Herodotus was ‘The History of Persian Wars’.

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Question 6.
Who wrote the book ‘The City of God’?
Answer:
St. Augustine wrote the book ‘The City of God’.

Question 7.
Who gave the economic interpretation of History?
Answer:
Karl Marx gave the economic interpretation of History.

Question 8.
Write the definition of History by Karl Marx.
Answer:
According to Karl Marx “History is a story of the struggle between the haves and have nots”.

Question 9.
What is J.B. Bury’s definition about History?
Answer:
According to J.B. Bury, “History is a science; no less and no more”.

Question 10.
Mention the book of Arnold Toynbee.
Answer:
The book of Arnold Toynbee is ‘A Study of History’.

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Question 11.
Who defined History as “The rise and fall of civilisations”?
Answer:
Arnold Toynbee the British historian defined History as “The story of the rise and fall of civilizations”.

Question 12.
What is the definition of Jawaharlal Nehru, about history?
Answer:
According to Nehru “History is a story of man from Barbarism to civilization”.

Question 13.
Who was Toynbee?
Answer:
Arnold Toynbee was a British historian and a Professor of history at the London University.

Question 14.
What was the message of Thomas Carlyle on History?
Answer:
“Great personalities are no more, but history and autobiography of such personalities are still there” was his message.

1st PUC History Introduction to History Two Mark Questions and Answers

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Question 1.
Mention any two definitions of history.
Answer:
According to St. Augustine, “History is the story of the struggle between God and Satan, which would ultimately end in the victory of God (good) over Satan (evil). According to Karl Marx, “History is a story of the struggle between the haves and have nots”.

Question 2.
Name the works of Karl Marx.
Answer:
The works of Karl Marx are ‘Das Capital’ and ‘Communist Manifesto’.

Question 3.
Which are the two important works of Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
The two important works of Jawaharlal Nehru are ‘Discovery of India’ and ‘The Glimpses of World History’.

Question 4.
Mention any two professional uses of History.
Answer:
Politicians need historical knowledge in implementing administrative reforms. There are plenty of job opportunities at Museums, Archives and Tourism development related fields.

Question 5.
Name the book of Toynbee and write his definition on history.
Answer:
Arnold Toynbee has written the famous book ‘A Study of History’. He defined history as “The story of the rise and fall of civilizations”.

1st PUC History Introduction to History Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the definitions of History.
Answer:
According to Herodotus, “History is a record of great heroes and unique events to be remembered by the future generations”. St. Augustine says that “History is the story of the struggle between God and Satan, which would ultimately end in the victory of God (good) over Satan (evil)”. According to the German Philosopher and Economist Karl Marx, “History is a story of the struggle between the haves and have nots”.

According to J.B. Bury, “History is a science; no less and no more”. Thomas Carlyle says “Great personalities are no more, but, history and autobiography of such personalities are still there”. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, “Those who forget history cannot create history”. In general, history is understood as a record of past events.

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Question 2.
2. Explain the importance of study of History.
Answer:
1. History is the memory of the past events:
The study of history gives us information about the biographies of great men and a record of major events of the world. According to Will Durant, “A country’s past is like an individual’s memory. If memory goes, sanity goes with it”. Hayes and Moon wrote, “As memory is to man, History is to mankind”.

2. History helps to broaden our outlook:
The study of history helps us to get knowledge about the people of different countries, traditions, customs, cultures and civilizations. Thus it broadens the outlook of mankind. The details recorded in history relating to Art, Architecture, Literature and Religion expands one’s horizon of knowledge.

3. History promotes international peace:
The world has already witnessed the misgivings of the two World Wars. If another war takes place in the future, it would destroy the whole world. History has pointed out that unawareness of the culture of other countries and narrow nationalism has lead to such wars. Today, there is a great deal of competition among different countries in possessing nuclear weapons and war equipment. For the development of cordial relations between nations, the study of world history is the need of the hour.

4. History has Professional uses:
It is a competitive world. History is the main core subject for the competitive examinations like IAS, IPS, IFS, KAS, etc. Historical knowledge is a matter of necessity for Students, Teachers, Lawyers, Journalists, Administrators and Statesmen. Thousands of historians are working in the Department of Archaeological Survey of India under Central and State Governments. New job opportunities have opened up for the students of history at Museums, Archives, Tourism development and related fields. Thus, history has professional uses.

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Question 3.
Write a note on Herodotus.
Answer:
Herodotus was a Greek historian who lived in the 5th century BCE. He has contributed richly to History and Anthropology. He is believed to have initiated the writing of history and hence he has been regarded as ‘The Father of History’. He travelled widely in Greece and West Asia. He collected information of the Greek City-States and wrote nine volumes.

One of them, The History of Persian Wars’ deals with the wars between Persians and the Greeks. His work was the earliest writing on history. According to him, “History is a record of great heroes and unique events to be remembered by the future generations”.

In this definition, Herodotus has focused his thoughts on the achievements of great men and important events from which the succeeding generations can learn.

Question 4.
Write a note on Karl Marx.
Answer:
Karl Marx was a German Philosopher, Economist, Sociologist, Historian, Journalist, and Revolutionary socialist. His ideas played a significant role in the establishment of the social sciences and the development of the socialist movement. He is also considered as one of the greatest economists in history. He enunciated a new economic interpretation of the definition of history.

According to him, “History is a story of the struggle between the haves and have nots”. In this definition, Marx emphasizes on the struggle between the haves and have nots i.e., the rich and the poor. He argues that there is a constant conflict between the exploiters and exploited. He wrote two great works namely, ‘Das Capital’ and ‘Communist Manifesto’.

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1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण कारक रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति

You can Download 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण कारक – रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति, 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण कारक – रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति

रिक्त स्थान भरिएः

१) कोष्टक में दिए गए कारक चिन्हों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए:
(ने, को, से, का, की, के, में, पर, के लिए, के द्वारा)

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१) छात्र कलम ………. लिखता है। [से]
२) पेड़ ……. पत्ता गिरा। [से]
३) श्याम ………. पुस्तक पढ़ी। [ने]
४) अध्यापक विद्यार्थियों ……… पढ़ाते हैं। [को]
५) उसकी बहन ……. नाम मालती है। [का]
६) श्यामा चाकू ……… फल काट रही है। [से]
७) लड़का छत …….. गिर पड़ा। [से]
८) गीता ……… पुस्तक मेरे पास है। [की]
९) अलमारी …….. कपड़े रखे हैं। [में]
१०) मेज …….. पंखा रखा है। [पर]
११) युवक ………. कपड़े फट गए। [के]
१२) वह घर ……… नहीं है। [में]
१३) उसने भिखारी ………. भीख दी। [को]
१४) बिल्ली……….. चूहे को मारा। [ने]
१५) किसान खेत ………. काम करते हैं। [में]
१६) वह अपने माता-पिता ………. इज्जत करता है। [की]
१७) छत ………. ऊपर मत कूदो। [के]
१८) नेता ………. सभा को संबोधित किया। [ने]
१९) पिताजी ने बच्चों ……… मिठाई दी। [को]
२०) केनेडा …….. प्रधानमन्त्री ने ऐसा कहा। [के]
२१) यह पाँच रुपए ………. नोट है। [का]
२२) दरवाजे ……… कौन खड़ा है? [पर]
२३) साहित्य समाज ………. दर्पण है। [का]
२४) वहाँ लोगों ………. भीड़ है। [की]
२५) राजा दशरथ ……… चार पुत्र थे। [के]
२६) यह रोहन ……… घर है। [का]
२७) डाकिये ……… पत्र पहुँचाया गया। [से]
२८) उसे पद ……… हटा दिया गया। [से]
२९) उसने देश ……… अपनी कुर्बानी दे दी। [के लिए]
३०) पुत्र ने अपने पिता ………. नाम रोशन किया। [का]

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अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

२) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(का, ने, के साथ, में, से)
1) जागना सारी चिंता ………… मूल बन गया। [का]
2) जागना अर्थात् विवेक …………. सोचना था। [से]
3) मनुष्य …………. अपने लिए महती विनष्टि ढूँढ लिये हैं। [ने]
4) वह तेजी ………… महानाश की ओर दौड़ पड़ा है। [के साथ]
5) मैदान …….. कौन खेल रहे हैं? [में]

३) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(क्योंकि, लिखे, गुनगुने, अपने, भारी)
1) उसने अनेक ग्रंथ ………..। [लिखे]
2) मैं प्रसन्न हूँ ………… तुम मेहनती हो। [क्योंकि]
3) वे ………… पानी से स्नान करते हैं। [गुनगुने]
4) वहाँ …….. मारकाट हुई। [भारी]
5) हम ………. देश को प्यार करते हैं। [अपने]

४) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(का, में, गया, ने, पर)
1) पाकिस्तान से आए हुए खिलाड़ी अशोक होटल ………… ठहरे हैं। [में]
2) मेरे बचपन …………. साथी रमेश डॉक्टर है। [का]
3) चोर मौका पाते ही भाग …………। [गया]
4) मैं अपने मित्रों के साथ घर ………. बैठा हूँ। [पर]
5) रोहन ………… रोटी खायी। [ने]

५) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(छड़ी, सवेरे, सागर, बाबत, प्रसन्न)
1) कवि ने गागर में …………. भरा है। [सागर]
2) वह हाथ की घुघर वाली ……….. बनना चाहता है। [छड़ी]
3) मोती न मिलने की ……….. दुखी नहीं हूँगा। [बाबत]
4) थोड़ी-सी खुशी पाकर स्वयं अधिक ………… अनुभव करना। [प्रसन्न]
5) वह ………… आया। [सवेरे]

६) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(गुणवती, गाना, सज्जन, गायिका, बलिष्ठ)
1) मेरे पिता ………… है। [सज्जन]
2) ……… स्त्री की पूजा सर्वत्र होती है। [गुणवती]
3) मेरी बहन अच्छी ………… है। [गायिका]
4) अनुपम एक …………. लड़का है। [बलिष्ठ]
5) गोपाल ने ………… गाया। [गाना]

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७) कोष्टक में दिये गये उचित शब्दों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।
(मेरी, के, तेज, असली, पड़ेगा)
1) मनुष्य …………. भाग्य भगवान से रचित है। [के]
2) …………. मुसीबतें खत्म हुई। [मेरी]
3) यही तो ………… आर्यता है। [असली]
4) उसे यह काम करना ही [पड़ेगा]
5) हवा ……… बहने लगी। [तेज]

2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 3 Administrative Machinery In India

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 3 Administrative Machinery In India

You can Download Chapter 3 Administrative Machinery In India, Notes, 2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

2nd PUC Political Science Administrative Machinery In India One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is administration?
Answer:
A machinery which implements the policies, programmes and laws of the government is called administration:

Question 2.
Write the root word of administration.
Answer:
The word administration is derived from the Latin words ‘Ad’ and ‘Ministrare’.

Question 3.
‘Administration is the science of modern civilization’- who said this?
Answer:
Charles A. Beard said that “Administration is the science of modern civilization’.

Question 4.
Which is the primary unit of administration?
Answer:
District Administration is the primary unit of administration.

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Question 5.
When did the East India company introduced civil service in India?
Answer:
East India Company introduced Civil Service in India in Middle of the 19th Century.

Question 6.
Which is called the permanent executive?
Answer:
Civil Service is called the permanent executive.

Question 7.
Which is called the political executive?
Answer:
The Council of Ministers which is an elected body is called political executive.

Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of All India Services?
Answer:
Article 312 of Indian Constitution provides for the creation of All India Services.

Question 9.
Expand IAS.
Answer:
Indian Administrative Service.

Question 10.
Expand IPS.
Answer:
Indian Police Service.

Question 11.
Expand IFS.
Answer:
Indian Forest Service.

Question 12.
Where does the Lai Bahadur Shastri Academy situated?
Answer:
Lai Bahadur Shastri Academy is situated at Massourie.

Question 13.
Where does Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Police Academy situated?
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel Police Academy is situated at Hyderabad.

Question 14.
When was the Indian civil serv ice Act got approved?
Answer:
The Indian Civil Service Act approv ed in 1951.

Question 15.
Which article of the Constitution provides powers to the Parliament for the creation of Central Services?
Answer:
Article 312 of Indian Constitution provides powers to the Parliament for the creation of Central Services

Question 16.
Which article of the constitution provides for the creation of State Services?
Answer:
Article 309 of Indian Constitution provides for the creation of State Sendees.

Question 17.
Who acts as the eyes and ears of the Prime Minister?
Answer:
Cabinet Secretary acts as the eyes and ears of the Prime Minister.

Question 18.
How many AH India Services are there in India?
Answer:
There are 3 All India Services in India.

Question 19.
What is AH India Services?
Answer:
A group of persons who are appointed by Union Government and belongs to both central and state governments is called All India Services.

Question 20.
What is Central Services? (July 2018)
Answer:
A group of persons who are appointed by the Union Government and come under the exclusive control of the Central Government is called Central Services.

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Question 21.
What is State Services?
Answer:
A group of persons who are appointed by the State Government and working in the departments of state government is called State Services.

Question 22.
Expand KAS.
Answer:
Karnataka Administrative Service.

Question 23.
Who is the Head of State Administration?
Answer:
Chief Secretary is the Head of the State Administration.

Question 24.
Who is the Head of the District Administration?
Answer:
Deputy Commissioner is the Head of the District Administration.

Question 25.
Who functions as District Magistrate?
Answer:
Deputy Commissioner functions as District Magistrate.

Question 26.
Expand CAT.
Answer:
Central Administrative Tribunal.

Question 27.
Expand KAT.
Answer:
Karnataka Administrative Tribunal.

Question 28.
Which Article of the Constitution provides for the formation of Administrative Tribunal?
Answer:
Article 323(A) of Indian Constitution provides for the formation of Administrative Tribunal.

Question 29.
Expand UPSC.
Answer:
Union Public Service Commission.

Question 30.
Expand KPSC.
Answer:
Karnataka Public Service Commission.

Question 31.
Expand JPSC.
Answer:
Joint Public Service Commission.

Question 32.
Who appoints the members of Union Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the members of Union Public Service Commission.

Question 33.
What is the retirement age of the members of Union Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The retirement age of the members of Union Public Service Commission is 65 years.

Question 34.
Who appoints the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission.

Question 35.
What is the retirement age of the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The retirement age of the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission is 62 years.

Question 36.
What is the tenure of the members of the Union Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The tenure of the members of the Union Public Service Commission is 6 years.

Question 37.
What is the tenure of the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission?
Answer:
The tenure of the members of Karnataka Public Service Commission is 6 years.

Question 38.
How many members are there in Union Public Service Commission?
Answer:
There are 10 members in Union Public Service Commission.

Question 39.
How many members are there in Karnataka Public Service Commission?
Answer:
There are 9 members in Karnataka Public Service Commission.

Question 40.
Where is KPSC located?
Answer:
KPSC is located in Bengaluru.

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2nd PUC Political Science Administrative Machinery In India Two marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
Define administration.
Answer:
According to J.M. Piffner ‘Administration is the organization and direction of the men and material resources to achieve desired ends’.

Question 2.
The concept of welfare state has expanded the scope of administration. Evaluate.
Answer:
The modern states are welfare states and should provide the basic requirements to all the people from birth to death without any discrimination. So the concept of welfare state has expanded the scope of administration.

Question 3.
Define Civil Service. (March 2015)
Answer:
According to R.G. Gettell ‘General body of official serving under heads of various departments and-known collectively as the civil service’.

Question 4.
State the importance of Civil Service.
Answer:
The Civil Service is the backbone and fourth organ of Executive. Without Civil Service, the administration cannot be carried out.

Question 5.
What is civil service according H. Finer?
Answer:
According to H. Finer, Civil Service is a professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled’.

Question 6.
What is Administrative Hierarchy?
Answer:
Each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where high ranking officers supervises their subordinates, it is called Hierarchy.

Question 7.
What is Political Neutrality? (July 2016)
Answer:
Civil Service is a non-political machinery of the government. They perform their duties without being aligned to any kind of political regime, it is called Political Neutrality.

Question 8.
What is Anonymity? (March 2016)
Answer:
Civil servants will have to work anonymously without disclosing their identity in any manner. They work for the government and for the department concerned, it is called Anonymity.

Question 9.
What is the main objective of All India Services?
Answer:
Promoting coordination between Union and State Governments is the main objective of All India Service.

Question 10.
What are the classification of central services
Answer:
The central services have been classified into four categories. They are Group A, Group B Group C and Group D

Question 11.
Give two examples of Central Services. (July 2018)
Answer:
External Affairs and Railways.

Question 12.
Name any two subjects that come under State Services.
Answer:
Police and Agriculture.

Question 13.
What are the qualifications to become the members of KPSC?
Answer:
(a) Must be a citizen of India.
(b) Must have administrative experience with a minimum of 10 years.

Question 14.
Who is empowered to impeach the chairman and members of UPSC and on what basis?
Answer:
The Chairman and the members of UPSC can be removed from the office only by an order of the President, on the ground of misbehavior proved by the Supreme Court.

Question 15.
Who is empowered to impeach the chairman and members of KPSC and on what basis?
Answer:
The Chairman and the members of the KPSC can be removed under the same circumstances as applicable to the Chairman and members of UPSC.

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2nd PUC Political Science Administrative Machinery In India Five marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
List out the features of public administration in contemporary society. (March 2015)
Answer:
The features of public administration in contemporary society are as follows:
(a) Preservation of the polity.
(b) Maintenance of stability and order.
(c) Institutionalization of socio-economic change.
(d) Management of large scale commercial sciences.
(e) Ensuring the growth of economic development.
(f) Protection of the weaker sections of society.
(g) Formation of public opinion.
(h) Influencing public policies and political trends.

Question 2.
Explain the features of Civil Service. (March 2017,2019 – July 2015 – 2018)
Answer:
The features of civil service are as follows:
(a) Professional body: Civil service consists of a professional body of officials who are permanent, paid and skilled. It is a whole time job and career service.

(b) Hierarchy: As per the scalar system, each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where high ranking administration officer with discretionary powers supervises their subordinates.

(c) Political neutrality: Civil servants refrain always from political activities. They perform their duties without being aligned to any kind of political regime.

(d) Anonymity: Civil servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the government. Recognition for good work or disrepute for any omission goes only to the minister and not to the civil servants.

(e) Impartiality: The civil servants have to apply the laws of the state while performing the duties without showing any favour, bias or preference to any groups or section of society.

(f) Service motto: They have to work for the welfare of the society. They must be humble and service minded towards the public.

(g) Permanent: Civil servants are called the permanent executive. They discharge duties till they attain the age of superannuation.

(h) Jurisdiction of law: Every civil servant has to function within the prescribed jurisdiction of law. If he crosses the limit, he is met with disciplinary’ action.

(i) Special training: Once the candidates are selected for civil service, they are deputed to in-service training to acquire special skills in administration.

Question 3.
Write a note on Central Secretariat and write the flow chart of administrative hierarchy.
Answer:
The word Secretariat means office of the Secretaries. For the purpose of administration, the. Government of India is divided into Ministry and Departments which constitute the Central Secretariat. For efficient discharge of business allotted to a ministry, it is divided into various Departments, Wings, Branches and Sections.
Hierarchical order of Central Secretariat is as follows:

  • Department – Secretary
  • Wing – Additional/Joint Secretary
  • Division – Deputy Secretary
  • Branch – Under Secretary
  • Section – Section Officer

Question 4.
Write note on All Indian services (July 2016)
Answer:
Article 312 of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of All India Services for the Union and States. Presently India has three All India Services
(a) Indian Administrative Services.
(b) Indian Police Services.
(c) Indian Forest Services.
The eligible persons to these services are recruited by the Union Government. The sen ice of these officers could be utilized by both the Union and state governments. Parliament is empowered to create All India Services to ensure coordination between Union and State Governments. The service rules and other emoluments are determined by the Parliament from time to time. Article 312(i) of the India Constitution states that, Rajya Sabha initiates a resolution supported by not less than 2/3rd of the members present, to create one or more All India Services.

Question 5.
Write briefly about the Central Services.(March 2016)
Answer:
India is a union of states and hence it provides for division of powers. Subjects mentioned in the union list are to be managed by a separate body of officials under Central Service. Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create central services.
The officials appointed to these services come under the exclusive control of the Central Government. The central services are classified into Class-I, Class-II, Class-Ill and Class-IV. Some of the central services are:
(a) Indian Foreign Sendees.
(b) India Railway Services.
(c) Indian Defence Services.
(d) Indian Postal Services.
(e) Indian Information Services.
The eligible persons for central services are recruited by the Union Government and they come under the regulation of Central government. They will work in the Departments of the Central Government.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
Write a short note on State Services.
Answer:
Article 309 of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of State Services. These services have listed in the state list. The eligible persons for state services are recruited by the State Government and these services are under the regulation of state government. The service rules and emoluments are determined by state government. The State Services have been classified into Class-I, Class-II, Class-III and Class-IV. The State Services in Karnataka are:
(a) Karnataka Administrative Services
(b) Karnataka State Police Services.
(c) Karnataka Forest Services.
(d) Karnataka Engineering Services.
(e) Karnataka Education Services.
(f) Karnataka Cooperative Services.
(g) Karnataka Food and Civil Supply Services.

Question 7.
List out the primary functions performed by the ministers with the assistance of State Secretariat.
Answer:
The primary functions performed by the ministers with the assistance of state secretariat:
(a) Formulating and modifying legislation from time to time.
(b) Planning and budget formulation.
(c) Co-ordinate with the centre and other states.
(d) Promoting organizational competency.
(e) Answering questions in the Assembly.

Question 8.
Explain the role of Cabinet Secretary in central administration.
Answer:
The Cabinet Secretary is the head of the Central Secretariat and he plays an important role as follows:
(a) Provides assistance to the Council of Ministers.
(b) Ensures the morale of the civil servants in the central administration.
(c) Act as a bridge between the political executive and the civil servants.
(d) Protects the interests of the central service class.
(e) Attend all the meetings of the cabinet and cabinet committees.
(f) Follow the code of secrecy.
(g) Act as a eyes and ears of the Prime Minister.

Question 9.
Write about the functions of Chief Secretary in state administration. (March 2015,2016,2017, July 2015)
Answer:
Chief Secretary is the head of the State Secretariat. His functions are as follows:
(a) He is principal adviser to the Chief Minister.
(b) He acts as the Cabinet Secretary and the only person who attends the Cabinet meeting.
(c) He exercises general supervision and control over the entire Secretariat.
(d) He looks after all matters beyond the purview of other secretaries.
(e) As Chief of all the Secretaries, he presides over a large number of committees and is a member of many others.
(f)  He has control over the staff attached to the ministers.
(g) He is bridge between the State and Central government.

Question 10.
Write about the Central Administrative Tribunal.
Answer:
The Central Administrative Tribunal has been established for adjudication of disputes with regard to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public service. Article 323(A) of the Indian Constitution provides for setting up of Administrative Tribunals. It goes a long way in reducing the burden of various courts by reducing of cases relating to matters of civil service. It also provides to the officials a speedy and effective remedy.

A Chairman who has been a sitting or retired Judge of a High Court heads the Central Administrative Tribunal. Besides the Chairman, the authorized strength consists of 16 Vice Chairman and 49 Members. The employees of the Central Administrative Tribunal are required to discharge their duties under the general superintendence of the Chairman. Service Rules and other emoluments are determined by Union Government.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
Write about the Karnataka Administrative Tribunal.
Answer:
The Karnataka Administrative Tribunal has been established on 6-10-1986 for effective, expeditious and satisfactory disposal of matters relating to service disputes. It has been setting up as independent tribunals to handle pending cases before the Supreme Court and High Courts relating to service matters. It also dealt with the cases of disciplinary action against government sen ants. The Tribunal consists of Chairman, a Judicial Member and three Administrative Members. The Karnataka Administrative Tribunal is located in Bengaluru.

Question 12.
Write the functions of Union Public Service Commission.(March 2018-July 2017,2018)
Answer:
Article 320 of the Constitution of India enumerate the functions of the UPSC.
(a) To conduct examinations for appointment to the central-services and All India Services.
(b) To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
(c) To advise the Government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions and inter service matters.
(d) To submit annual report regarding its working to the President.
(e) To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
(f) To serve all or any needs of the State Government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

Question 13.
Write the functions of Karnataka Public Service Commission.
Answer:
The functions of the Karnataka Service Commission are as follows:
(a) To conduct competitive examinations for the recruitment of candidates to state services.
(b) To conduct departmental examinations.
(c) To prepare rules of recruitment, promotion and transfer of civil servants from one service to another.
(d) To advise the State Government on all matters relating to the matters of civil sendee in the state.
(e) To submit annual report regarding its working to the State Governor.

2nd PUC Political Science Administrative Machinery In India Ten marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning and features of the Civil Service.
Answer:
The term civil services was used by the East India Company to signify administrative sendee of the state. It includes the entire body of government officials, who are permanently employed and given a regular salary. Its main function is to perform the work of administration of the country. Its features are as follows:-
Features of the civil services: The features of civil service are as follows:
(a) Professional body: Civil service consists of a professional body of officials who are permanent, paid and skilled. It is a whole time job and career service.

(b) Hierarchy: As per the scalar system, each civil servant has to obey his immediate superior, where high ranking administration officer with discretionary powers supervises their subordinates.

(c) Political neutrality: Civil servants refrain always from political activities. They perform their duties without being aligned to any kind of political regime.

(d) Anonymity: Civil servants work behind the screen and remain anonymous even though they work for the government. Recognition for good work or disrepute for any omission goes only to the minister and not to the civil servants.

(e) Impartiality: The civil servants have to apply the laws of the state while performing the duties without showing any favour, bias or preference to any groups or section of society.

(f) Service motto: They have to work for the welfare of the society . They must be humble and service minded towards the public.

(g) Permanent: Civil servants are called the permanent executive. They discharge duties till they attain the age of superannuation.

(h) Jurisdiction of law: Every civil servant has to function within the prescribed jurisdiction of law. If he crosses the limit, he is met with disciplinary’ action.

(i) Special training: Once the candidates are selected for civil service, they are deputed to in service training to acquire special skills in administration.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Write about All India Services, Central Services and State Services.
Answer:
All India services:
Article 312 of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of All India Services for the Union and States. Presently India has three All India Services
(a) Indian Administrative Services.
(b) Indian Police Services.
(c) Indian Forest Services.
The eligible persons to these services are recruited by the Union Government. The service of these officers could be utilized by both the Union and state governments. Parliament is empowered to create All India Sen ices to ensure coordination between Union and State Governments. The service rules and other emoluments are determined by the Parliament from time to time. Article 3 12(i) of the India Constitution states that, Rajya Sabha initiates a resolution supported by not less than 2/3rd of the members present, to create one or more All India Services.

Central services: India is a union of states and hence it provides for division of powers. Subjects mentioned in the union list are to be managed by a separate bodv of officials under Central Service. Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create central services.
The officials appointed to these services come under the exclusive control of the Central Government. The central services are classified into Class-I, Class-II, Class-Ill and Class-IV. Some of the central services are:
(a) Indian Foreign Sendees.
(b) India Railway Services.
(c) Indian Defence Services.
(d) Indian Postal Services.
(e) Indian Information Services.
The eligible persons for central services are recruited by the Union Government and they come under the regulation of Central government. They will work in the Departments of the Central Government.

State Services: Article 309 of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of State Services. These Services have listed in the state list. The eligible persons for state Services are recruited by the State Government and these Services are under the regulation of state government. The service rules and emoluments are determined by state government. The State Services have been classified into Class-I, Class-II, Class-Ill and Class-IV. The State Sendees in Karnataka are:
(a) Karnataka Administrative Sendees
(b) Karnataka State Police Services.
(c) Karnataka Forest Services.
(d) Karnataka Engineering Services.
(e) Karnataka Education Services.
(f) Karnataka Cooperative Services.
(g) Karnataka Food and Civil Supply Services.

Question 3.
Explain the powers and functions of Deputy Commissioner. (July 2015, 2016, 2017, March 2019)
Answer:
The Deputy Commissioner is the head of the District Administration. He also acts as District Magistrate. The functions of the Deputy Commissioner are as follows:

(a) Law and order and magisterial powers: Deputy Commissioner also enjoys magisterial powers. Being the District Magistrate, he maintains law and order and performs other judicial functions in the district.

(b) Revenue functions: It includes maintenance of land records and its assessment, collection of land revenue and other public dues and settlement of land disputes.

(c) Developmental functions: It includes Public Health. Education. Rural Development. Social Welfare and welfare of Backward Classes and Minorities and protection of weaker sections of the society.

(d) Electoral functions: Deputy Commissioner is the District Election Officer and he is in charge of elections to Parliament. State Legislature and local bodies.

(e) Municipal administration:- The Deputy Commissioner is generally responsible for the supervision and proper functioning of the urban local bodies. The implementation of various developmental and anti-poverty measures for the urban poor is monitered by the Deputy Commissioner.

(f) Disaster management:- In situations like floods, famines, accidental fires, earthquakes and other natural calamities, the entire district administration is geared to meet the threat and the Deputy Commissioner assumes charge to co-ordinate the activities of various departments.

(g) Public grievances:- The Deputy Commissioner is the District Grievances Officer, by virtue of which he maintains the overall responsibility to ensure proper functioning of all departments in the district.

Question 4.
Explain the composition, powers and functions of Union Public Service Commission.
Answer:
Composition:- Article 315 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the Union Public Service Commission. It is composed of a Chairman and 10 members. They are appointed by the President on the advice of the Union Cabinet. The members should have a minimum of 10 years experience as administrators in Government service. A member of UPSC holds office for a period of 6 years or till he attain the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.

Powers and functions of UPSC: Article 320 of the Constitution of India enumerate the functions of the UPSC.
(a) To conduct examinations for appointment to the central-services and All India Services.
(b) To assist two or more states, on request for joint recruitment for any services.
(c) To advise the Government on matters relating to the methods of recruitment, promotions, transfers, disciplinary actions and inter service matters.
(d) To submit annual report regarding its working to the President.
(e) To exercise such additional functions as provided by an act of Parliament.
(f) To serve all or any needs of the State Government on request by the Governor and with the approval of the President.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Explain the composition, powers and functions of Karnataka Public Service Commission.
Answer:
Composition:- The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for each state. The Karnataka Public Service Commission was set up consisting of a Chairman and 9 other members. The members should have administrative experience with a minimum of 10 years service of the state. The Chairman and members of the KPSC are appointed by the Governor on the recommendations of the State Cabinet. They are appointed for a period of 6 years or till they attain the age of 62 years whichever is earlier.
Powers and functions of KPSC: The functions of the Karnataka Service Commission are as follows:
(a) To conduct competitive examinations for the recruitment of candidates to state services.
(b) To conduct departmental examinations.
(c) To prepare rules of recruitment, promotion and transfer of civil servants from one service to another.
(d) To advise the State Government on all matters relating to the matters of civil sendee in the state.
(e) To submit annual report regarding its working to the State Governor.

1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण काल परिवर्तन

You can Download 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण काल परिवर्तन, 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण काल परिवर्तन

सूचनानुसार काल बदलिए:

१) वह अपना काम करता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
वह अपना काम करता था।

२) उसने फल खाया। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह फल खाता है।

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३) सुधा हँसती है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
सुधा हँसेगी।

४) सूरदास ने अनेक पद लिखे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
सूरदास अनेक पद लिखते हैं।

५) बालक खा रहा था। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
बालक खाएगा।

६) कल मेहमान आयेंगे। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
कल मेहमान आये थे।

७) माताजी मन्दिर जाएँगी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)।
माताजी मन्दिर जाती हैं।

८) शिकारी शिकार करेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
शिकारी शिकार करता था।

९) गोपाल दूध का व्यापार करता था। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
गोपाल दूध का व्यापार करता है।

१०) पिताजी मैसूर जा रहे हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
पिताजी मैसूर जा रहे थे।

११) उसने दरवाज़ा खोला। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
वह दरवाजा खोलेगा।

१२) उसे सम्मानित किया जाएगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उसे सम्मानित किया गया।

१३) माला गाना गाती है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
माला गाना गाएगी।

१४) नेताजी भाषण देंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
नेताजी भाषण देते हैं।

१५) कई अनाथालय भी खुलेंगे। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
कई अनाथालय भी खुले थे।

१६) श्याम काम करेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
श्याम काम करता था।

१७) उसने करवट बदली। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह करवट बदलता है।

१८) माताजी पत्र लिखेंगी। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
माताजी पत्र लिखती थीं।

१९) उसने अध्यापक से बात की। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह अध्यापक से बात करता है।

२०) वह अपने विचार व्यक्त करता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
वह अपने विचार व्यक्त करेगा।

२१) सैनिकों ने देश का नाम रोशन किया। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
सैनिक देश का नाम रोशन करते हैं।

२२) लड़के मैदान में खेल रहे थे। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
लड़के मैदान में खेलेंगे।

२३) हमारे शिक्षक प्रश्न करते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
हमारे शिक्षक प्रश्न करते थे।

२४) सीता राम के साथ वन गई थीं। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
सीता राम के साथ वन जाती हैं।

२५) बूढ़ों को देख युवक हँसते हैं। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
‘बूढ़ों को देख युवक हँसेंगे।

अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

1) उसे डाक्टरी सहायता की ज़रूरत है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
उसे डाक्टरी सहायता की जरूरत होगी।

2) मैंने कुछ कहा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मैंने कुछ कहा है।

3) मुसाफिर हाथ हटा लेता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मुसाफिर ने हाथ हटा लिया था।

KSEEB Solutions

4) तीन बजे की फ्लाइट से मेरा भतीजा दुबई जाएगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
तीन बजे की फ्लाइट से मेरा भतीजा दुबई जा रहा है।

5) भाँजी की शादी में मामा का होना ज़रूरी होगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
भाँजी की शादी में मामा का होना जरूरी है।

6) अगली सुबह ड्राइवर मुंबई से पुणे के लिए चल देता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
अगली सुबह ड्राइवर मुंबई से पुणे के लिए चल देगा।

7) मैं आँगन में चिड़ियों के लिए दाने डाल दूंगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मैं आँगन में चिड़ियों के लिए दाने डाल रहा हूँ।

8) वे एक मित्र के घर रुकेंगे। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
वे एक मित्र के घर रुके थे।

9) लोहिया जी स्पष्ट शब्दों में कहते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
लोहिया जी ने स्पष्ट शब्दों में कहा था।

10) इसके मस्तक पर भी फूलों का अभिषेक होता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
इसके मस्तक पर भी फूलों का अभिषेक होगा।

11) नागफनी के परिवार की यह दशा हुई। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
नागफनी के परिवार की यह दशा हो रही है।

12) मैं अन्न ग्रहण नहीं कर रहा हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
मैं अन्न ग्रहण नहीं करूँगा।

13) नया गीत गाया जाएगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
नया गीत गाया गया था।

14) शिक्षा, सहकारिता और कृषि की आस्थाएँ यहाँ धरती पर लकीरें बनाती हैं। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
शिक्षा, सहकारिता और कृषि की आस्थाएँ यहाँ धरती पर लकीरें बना रही हैं।

15) पंद्रह वर्षीय शिरीष मेहता एवं उसके अन्य चार साथियों को अंग्रेज गोली से भून देते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
पंद्रह वर्षीय शिरीष मेहता एवं उसके अन्य चार साथियों को अंग्रेजों ने गोली से भून दिया था।

16) इसकी सुंदरता विविधता में ही बसेगी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
इसकी सुंदरता विविधता में ही बसती है।

17) आज कल कौन किसकी मानेगा? (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
आज कल कौन किसकी मानता है?

18) लड़कों के तेवर बदलते जाते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
लड़कों के तेवर बदल गये थे।

19) तुम मेरे साथ अच्छा नहीं करती हो। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
तुम मेरे साथ अच्छा नहीं कर रही हो।

20) मेरी सखी पूरे गाँव में अपना लोहा मनवाती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मेरी सखी पूरे गाँव में अपना लोहा मनवाती थी।

21) मुन्नी को चिट्ठी लिखवाती हूँ। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मुन्नी को चिट्ठी लिखवा रही हूँ।

22) आप को रोज़ यहाँ देखकर हैरानी हो रही है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
आप को रोज़ यहाँ देखकर हैरानी होगी।

23) उसे हँसते देखकर मेरी हिम्मत बढ़ जाती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उसे हँसते देखकर मेरी हिम्मत बढ़ गयी थी।

24) विपिन की साँस तेज़-तेज़ चलने लगती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
विपिन की साँस तेज-तेज चलने लगी थी।

25) फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहता हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
फिर भी मैं तुम्हें बुजदिल ही कहूँगा।

KSEEB Solutions

26) वह बच्ची पंजाबी की प्रसिद्ध कवयित्री अमृता प्रीतम बन जाएगी। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह बच्ची पंजाबी की प्रसिद्ध कवयित्री अमृता प्रीतम बन रही है।

27) लकड़हारा राजकुमारी को देखता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
लकड़हारा राजकुमारी को देखता था।

28) वह सोने की पालकी में बैठती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
वह सोने की पालकी में बैठती थी।

29) मैं उसे चुप कराऊँगी। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मैं उसे चुप करा रही थी।

30) ईश्वर बच्चों का कहना मान जाएगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
ईश्वर बच्चों का कहना मान जाता है।

31) तुम्हारा नाम लोगों के पुत्रों से ज्यादा चमकता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
तुम्हारा नाम लोगों के पुत्रों से ज्यादा चमकेगा।

32) अपरिचित चेहरों के बीच में कोई एक चेहरा ढूँढती हूँ। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
अपरिचित चेहरों के बीच में कोई एक चेहरा ढूँढूंगी।

33) रात के वक्त भापाजी के गिरने की आवाज़ आती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
रात के वक्त भापाजी के गिरने की आवाज़ आती थी।

34) हम तो चलेंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
हम चल रहे हैं।

35) लोग भूख से भी मरे थे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
लोग भूख से भी मर रहे हैं।

36) लंगर रात दिन चलेगा। (अपूर्ण भूतकाल में बदलिए)
लंगर रात दिन चल रहा था।

37) वे छत पर देखने चले जा रहे थे। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
वे छत पर देखने जा रहे थे।

38) रावी से उसका कल्याण हो गया। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
रावी से उसका कल्याण हो जायेगा।

39) साहब तो मिनिस्टर साहब को लिखते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
साहब तो मिनिस्टर साहब को लिखते थे।

40) उद्घाटन कार्य वे परसों ही करना चाहेंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उद्घाटन कार्य वे परसों ही करना चाहते हैं।

41) सबको भी बराबर हिस्सा मिलता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
सबको बराबर हिस्सा मिलेगा।

42) सब लोग अपनी-अपनी राय देंगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
सब लोग अपनी-अपनी राय देते है।

43) हमको भी मेंबर बना लिया जाएगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
हमको भी मेंबर बना लिया है।

44) अपने छोटे भाई से इनके कारनामे सुनता था। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
अपने छोटे भाई से इनके कारनामे सुनता है।

45) गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ेगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
गर्मियों में बाहर गली में सोना पड़ा।

46) मैं क्षण भर के लिए रुक जाऊँगा। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मैं क्षण भर के लिए रुक गया था।

47) मैंने तुम्हें विश्वास दिलाया। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मैंने तुम्हें विश्वास दिलाया था।

48) तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बन गई। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
तरकारी भी लौकी की ही बनने वाली हैं।

49) प्रोफेसर साहब यहाँ प्रिंसिपल गिरधारीलाल से मिलने आ रहे थे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
प्रोफेसर साहब यहाँ प्रिंसिपल गिरधारीलाल से मिलने आ रहे हैं।

50) वह तो मैं केवल बात बनाने के लिए कह रहा हूँ। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
वह तो मैं केवल बात बनाने के लिए कह रहा था।

51) पास देखने से ज्यादा चक्कर आएँगे। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
पास देखने से ज्यादा चक्कर आते हैं।

KSEEB Solutions

52) मैं आकाश की ओर देखता हूँ। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मैं आकाश की ओर देखता था।

53) मुझे प्यार से अपनी गोद में लिए होते हैं। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मुझे प्यार से अपनी गोद में लिए हुए हैं। णाम लिए हुए हा

54) हरेक कदम पहले से भारी हो गया था। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
हरेक कदम पहले से भारी हो गया हैं।

55) जीवन और पथ दोनों मेरे सामने आ जाते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
जीवन और पथ दोनों मेरे सामने आ जाते थे।

56) बस में एक यात्री को चक्कर आ जाता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
बस में एक यात्री को चक्कर आ गया था।

57) मैंने चढ़ाई का पाप ही तो काटा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मैंने चढ़ाई का पाप ही तो काटा है।

58) उसकी प्रेयसी उसे मिली। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
उसकी प्रेयसी उसे मिल गयी है।

59) वह भीगता हुआ गया। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह भीगता हुआ जा रहा है।

60) वे आपके घर से भाग गए। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
वे आपके घर से भागने वाले हैं।

61) वह एक छाता खरीद लेगा। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
वह एक छाता खरीद रहा है।

62) उधर से एक मोटर चली आती है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
उधर से एक मोटर चली आ रही थी।

63) इतने दिन ये कहाँ छिपते हैं? (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
इतने दिन ये कहाँ छिपे हुए थे?

64) मुनीम जी पाँच सौ मन चावल बेच डालेंगे। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
मुनीम जी ने पाँच सौ मन चावल बेच दिए थे।

65) मैं किस लायक था? (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
मैं किस लायक हूँ?

66) लाला जी माथा ठोक लेते हैं। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
लाला जी ने माथा ठोक लिया।

67) सारे संसार ने तुमको बुरा कहा था। (वर्तमानकाल में बदलिए)
सारा संसार तुम्हें बुरा कह रहा है।

68) अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ता है। (भविष्यत्काल में बदलिए)
अब उसका ब्याह करना पड़ेगा।

KSEEB Solutions

69) खुद हलवा खाता है, हमें रूखी रोटियाँ ही खिलाता है। (भूतकाल में बदलिए)
खुद हलवा खाता था और हमें रूखी रोटियाँ खिलाता था।

1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण मुहावरे

You can Download 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण मुहावरे, 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण मुहावरे

निम्नलिखित मुहावरों को अर्थ के साथ जोड़िए:

अ) १) गर्दन उठाना – क) बहुत परिश्रम करना
२) खून-पसीना एक करना – ख) क्रोध से भर जाना
३) कमर कसना – ग) विरोध करना
४) आग बबूला होना – घ) तैयार होना
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ख।

KSEEB Solutions

आ) १) आसमान सिर पर उठाना – क) असहनीय दुःख होना
२) कलेजा फटना – ख) बहुत प्यारा
३) गले का हार – ग) बात बिगड़ जाना
४) गुड़ गोबर करना – घ) बहुत शोर करना
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – क;
३ – ख;
४ – ग।

इ) १) खाक में मिलाना – क) पिछली बातों को व्यर्थ में याद करना
२) गड़े मुर्दे उखाड़ना – ख) धोखा देना
३) टाँग अड़ाना – ग) नष्ट-भ्रष्ट कर देना
४) चकमा देना – घ) व्यर्थ में दखल देना
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ख।

ई) १) जी चुराना – क) निर्दोष पर दोष लगाना
२) चाँद पर थूकना – ख) इज्जत बढ़ानेवाला
३) घर का उजाला – ग) हारकर भागना
४) पीठ दिखाना – घ) मेहनत से बचना
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – क;
३ – ख;
४ – ग।

उ) १) पलकें बिछाना – क) जोर की भूख लगना
२) पेट में चूहे कूदना – ख) डर कर भाग जाना
३) दाल न गलना – ग) प्रतीक्षा करना
४) दुम दबाकर भागना – घ) सफल न होना
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ख

ऊ) १) नाम कमाना – क) भेद खुलना
२) मुँह फेरना – ख) सम्मान प्राप्त करना
३) नौ-दो-ग्यारह होना – ग) उपेक्षा करना
४) पोल खुलना – घ) भाग जाना
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – ग;
३ – घ;
४ – क।

अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

अ) १) अंक भरना – क) थकान की पीड़ा होना।
२) अंधे की लाठी – ख) एकमात्र सहारा।
३) अंग अंग टूटना – ग) प्रसन्नता से रोम-रोम खिलना।
४) अंग अंग मुसकाना – घ) गोद में भर लेना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ख;
३ – क;
४ – ग।

आ) १) अंग मोड़ना – क) मौके पर धोखा देना।
२) अँगूठा दिखाना – ख) लज्जा से देह सिकोड़ना।
३) अँगूठा चूमना – ग) परवाह न करना।
४) अँगूठे पर मारना – घ) खुशामद करना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

इ) १) आँखे अटकना – क) बोध होना।
२) आँख आना – ख) ध्यान न देना।
३) आँख उठाकर न देखना – ग) आँख में रोग होना।
४) आँख खुलना – घ) प्रेम होना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

ई) १) आँख गड़ना – क) रोना।
२) आँखे चुराना – ख) क्रोध करना।
३) आँखे डबडबाना – ग) लालच होना।
४) आँख दिखाना खाना – घ) लज्जित होना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – क;
४ – ख।

उ) १) आँख मारना – क) पसन्द आना।
२) आँख सेंकना – ख) बाट जोहना।
३) आँखें बिछाना – ग) दर्शन-सुख लूटना।
४) आँख में चढ़ना – घ) इशारा करना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

KSEEB Solutions

ऊ) १) आँखों का काँटा होना – क) मूर्ख बनाना।
२) उल्लू बनाना – ख) अत्यंत प्रिय।
३) आसमान के तारे तोड़ना – ग) शत्रु होना।
४) आँखों का तारा – घ) असंभव कार्य करना।
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ख।

ए) १) आँख की पुतली होना – क) दुर्बलता के कारण मूर्छा आना।
२) आँखों के आगे अँधेरा छाना – ख) प्यारा होना।
३) आँखें नीली-पीली करना। – ग) लज्जा न होना।
४) आँख में पानी न होना – घ) नाराज होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

ऐ) १) आँखों पर चर्बी छाना – क) धोखा देना।
२) आँखों पर पर्दा पड़ना – ख) अच्छा न लगना।
३) आँख में गड़ना – ग) अज्ञान के अन्धकार से रहना।
४) आँख में धूल झोंकना – घ) घमण्ड से उपेक्षा करना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

ओ) १) आँख से ओझल होना – क) नेत्र ज्योति समाप्त होना।
२) आँखों में रात काटना – ख) कृपादृष्टि न रखना।
३) आँख बदल जाना – ग) चिन्ता या व्यग्रता में रात बिताना।
४) आँखें बैठना – घ) नज़र से दूर होना।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

औ) १) आँखें चार होना – क) सम भाव से देखना।
२) एक आँख से देखना – ख) देखादेखी होना।
३) उँगली उठाना – ग) अपने काबू में कर लेना।
४) उँगली पर नचाना – घ) बदनाम करना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

क) १) उँगली रखना – क) थोड़ा पाकर अधिक पाने की इच्छा करना।
२) उँगली पकड़कर पहुंचा पकड़ना – ख) दोष दिखाना।
३) पाँचों उँगलियाँ घी में होना – ग) दृढ़ निश्चय करना।
४) कमर कसना – घ) मौज-मस्ती में रहना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – ध;
४ – ग।

ख) १) कमर सीधी करना – क) निरूत्साह होना।
२) कमर टूटना – ख) विश्राम करना।
३) कलेजा काढ़ना – ग) ईर्ष्या होना।
४) कलेजा फटना – घ) प्रिय वस्तु का निकल जाना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

KSEEB Solutions

ग) १) कलेजा ठंडा होना – क) हृदय पर गहरा आधात पहुँचना।
२) कलेजा टूक-टूक होना – ख) डाह पूरा होने पर संतोष होना।
३) कलेजा थामकर रह जाना – ग) हृदय की बात कहना।
४) कलेजा निकालकर रख देना – घ) मन मसोसकर रह जाना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – ग;
३ – घ;
४ – क।

घ) १) कलेजा मुँह को आना – क) पूर्ण विश्वास दिलाना।
२) कलेजे पर साँप लोटना – ख) दिल मजबूत करना।
३) कलेजे पर पत्थर रखना – ग) किसी की उन्नति देखकर जलन होना।
४) कलेजा चीरकर दिखाना – घ) बहुत अफसोस होना।
उत्तरः
१. घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

च) १) कान का पर्दा फटना – क) ध्यान देना।
२) कान देना – ख) चुगली करना।
३) कान खड़े होना – ग) बहुत हल्ला होना।
४) कान भरना – घ) सावधान होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ख।

१) कान में तेल डालकर बैठना – क) बहुत हल्ला होना।
२) कान का पर्दा फटना – ख) लापरवाह होना।
३) खून खौलना – ग) भय से पीला पड़ जाना।
४) खून सूखना – घ) गुस्से से भर जाना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

ज) १) खून की नदी बहाना – क) भयभीत होना।
२) खून ठंडा होना – ख) बहुत मार-काट करना।
३) खून उतरना – ग) इच्छा के विरूद्ध कुछ थोप देना।
४) गले मंढ़ना – घ) क्रोध से मुँह और आँख लाल होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

झ) १) गले लगाना – क) रूठना।
२) गले का हार – ख) डींग हाँकना।
३) गाल फुलाना – ग) प्रेम करना।
४) गाल बजाना – घ) अत्यन्त प्रिय या शोभा बढ़ानेवाला।
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – घ;
३ – क;
४ – ख।

ट) १) घुटने टेकना – क) इच्छा पूरी होना।
२) छाती जुड़ाना – ख) हार मानना।
३) जी जलना – ग) अभिमान करना।
४) छाती फुलाना – घ) डाह होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

ठ) १) जबान खोलना – क) वाणी पर नियंत्रण न होना।
२) जबान पर लगाम न होना – ख) बोलना, माँगना।
३) जबान बन्द होना – ग) फिजूल दखल देना।
४) टाँग अड़ाना – घ) निरुत्तर होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

KSEEB Solutions

ड) १) टाँग पसारकर सोना – क) खुशामद करना।
२) तलवा चाटना – ख) निश्चिन्त होकर सोना।
३) तलवों में आग लगना – ग) कठिन दण्ड देना।
४) दाँत उखाड़ना – घ) बहुत क्रोध होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

ढ) १) दाँत-काटी रोटी होना – क) प्रतिष्ठा जाना।
२) दाँत से दाँत बजना – ख) प्रतिष्ठा नष्ट करना।
३) नाक कटना – ग) बहुत मित्रता होना।
४) नाक काटना – घ) बहुत जाड़ा पड़ना।
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – घ;
३ – क;
४ – ख।

त) १) पलक झपकते – क) कम के बदले अधिक देना।
२) पसीने-पसीने होना – ख) कड़ी मेहनत की कमाई।
३) पसीने की कमाई – ग) बिलकुल लज्जित होना।
४) पसीने की जगह खून बहाना – घ) क्षण मात्र में।
उत्तरः
१ – घ;
२ – ग;
३ – ख;
४ – क।

थ) १) पाँव (टाँग) अड़ाना – क) पराजित होना।
२) पाँव उखड़ जाना – ख) बाधा देना।
३) पीठ ठोकना – ग) सहायक होना।
४) पीठ पर होना – घ) प्रोत्साहन देना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

द) १) पेट का पानी न पचना – क) अल्पायु में ही बुद्धिमान् होना।
२) पेट में दाढ़ी होना – ख) बात न पचना।
३) बाँह गहना या पकड़ना – ग) सहारा देना।
४) बाँह देना – घ) अपनाना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – ग;
४ – छ।

ध) १) मन डोलना – क) उम्मीद न करना।
२) मन चलना – ख) लज्जावश सामने न आना।
३) मुँह धोना – ग) लालच होना।
४) मुँह न दिखाना – घ) इच्छा होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ग;
२ – घ;
३ – क;
४ – ख।

न) १) मुँह न देखना – क) घृणा प्रकट करना।
२) मुँह बनाना – ख) घृणा करना।
३) सिर पर खेलना – ग) धुन सवार होना।
४) सिर पर भूत सवार होना – घ) किसी के मत्थे कुछ करना।
उत्तरः १ – ख; २ – क; ३ – घ; ४ – ग।

KSEEB Solutions

प) १) हाथ खींचना – क) आरम्भ करना।
२) हाथ लगाना – ख) सहायता बंद करना।
३),हाथ खाली होना – ग) झगड़ा होना।
४) हाथापाई होना – घ) पैसा न होना।
उत्तरः
१ – ख;
२ – क;
३ – घ;
४ – ग।

1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण वाक्य शुद्धि

You can Download 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण वाक्य शुद्धि, 1st PUC Hindi Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 1st PUC Hindi Workbook Answers व्याकरण वाक्य शुद्धि

निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध कीजिएः

१) गोविन्द के बहिन का नाम सुशीला है।
गोविन्द की बहन का नाम सुशीला है।

KSEEB Solutions

२) आप उसके घर को गए।
आप उसके घर गए।

३) मेज में पुरतक पड़ी है।
मेज पर पुस्तक पड़ी है।

४) वह आपका घर कल आ सकेगा।
वह आपके घर कल आ सकेगा।

५) मैं स्कूल जाना चाहिए।
मुझे स्कूल जाना चाहिए।

६) हम हमारे देश को प्यार करते हैं।
हम अपने देश से प्यार करते हैं।

७) मंदिर की चारों ओर दुकानें हैं।
मंदिर के चारों ओर दुकानें हैं।

८) तालाब के अन्दर छोटी-सी मन्दिर है।
तालाब के अन्दर छोटा-सा मंदिर है।

९) उसने अपने मित्र को एक-सौ रुपया पूछा।
उसने अपने मित्र से एक-सौ रुपये पूछे।

१०) सभी उसको तारीफ करते हैं।
सभी उसकी तारीफ करते हैं।

११) वह घर को जा रहा है।
वह घर जा रहा है।

१२) वह प्रातःकाल के समय आया।
वह प्रातःकाल आया।

१३) रोहन ने रोटी खाया।
रोहन ने रोटी खायी।

१४) श्रीकृष्ण के अनेकों नाम हैं।
श्रीकृष्ण के अनेक नाम हैं।

१५) मुझे मैसूर जानी पड़ेगी।
मुझे मैसूर जाना पड़ेगा।

१६) गुणशीला चलती-चलती थक गए।
गुणशीला चलते-चलते थक गई।

१७) गोपाल गाना गाया।
गोपाल ने गाना गाया।

१८) श्याम काग किया।
श्याम ने काम किया।

१९) मेरे को उसने बुलाया है।
मुझे उसने बुलाया है।

KSEEB Solutions

२०) सरला ने कहानी पढ़ा।
सरला ने कहानी पढ़ी।

२१) मोहन की पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।
मोहन के पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।

२२) हवा तेज बहने लगा।
हवा तेज बहने लगी।

२३) उसका हाथ में मामूली चाकू था।
उसके हाथ में मामूली चाकू था।

२४) ग्यारहवीं शताब्दी का बात है।
ग्यारहवीं शताब्दी की बात है।

२५) वह दरवाजा खोला।
उसने दरवाजा खोला।

२६) आप आपके घर जाइए।
आप अपने घर जाइए।

११) वह घर को जा रहा है।
वह घर जा रहा है।

१२) वह प्रातःकाल के समय आया। .
वह प्रातःकाल आया।

१३) रोहन ने रोटी खाया।
रोहन ने रोटी खायी।

१४) श्रीकृष्ण के अनेकों नाम हैं।
श्रीकृष्ण के अनेक नाम हैं।

१५) मुझे मैसूर जानी पड़ेगी।
मुझे मैसूर जाना पड़ेगा।

१६) गुणशीला चलती-चलती थक गए।
गुणशीला चलते-चलते थक गई।

१७) गोपाल गाना गाया।
गोपाल ने गाना गाया।

१८) श्याम काग किया।
श्याम ने काम किया।

१९) मेरे को उसने बुलाया है।
मुझे उसने बुलाया है।

२०) सरला ने कहानी पढ़ा।
सरला ने कहानी पढ़ी।

२१) मोहन की पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।
मोहन के पिताजी अस्वस्थ हैं।

२२) हवा तेज बहने लगा।
हवा तेज बहने लगी।

२३) उसका हाथ में मामूली चाकू था।
उसके हाथ में मामूली चाकू था।

२४) ग्यारहवीं शताब्दी का बात है।
ग्यारहवीं शताब्दी की बात है।

KSEEB Solutions

२५) वह दरवाजा खोला।
उसने दरवाजा खोला।

२६) आप आपके घर जाइए।
आप अपने घर जाइए।

२७) तेरे को क्या हो गया है?
तुझे क्या हो गया है? (तुम्हें क्या हो गया है?)

२८) उसने बस वाले को पूछा।
उसने बस वाले से पूछा।

२९) तारकोल का सड़क चमक रही थी।
तारकोल की सड़क चमक रही थी।

३०) आप कल जरूर आओ।
आप कल जरूर आइए।

३१) आप कहे थे।
आपने कहा था।

३२) यह पाठ का नाम क्या है?
इस पाठ का नाम क्या है?

३३) कई विद्यालय खुला।
कई विद्यालय खुले।

३४) साहित्य और जीवन का घोर सम्बन्ध है।
साहित्य और जीवन का अटूट (गहरा) सम्बन्ध है।

३५) हिन्दी शिक्षा का माध्यम बन चुका है।
हिन्दी शिक्षा का माध्यम बन चुकी है।

३६) सूर्य की किरणें चमक रहे हैं।
सूर्य की किरणें चमक रही हैं।

३७) सुभाष चन्द्र बोस महान नेता था।
सुभाष चन्द्र बोस महान नेता थे।

३८) वह पुस्तक लेकर भागता हुआ घर आया।
वह पुस्तक लेकर भागते हुए घर आया।

३९) लड़के पढ़े करते हैं।
लड़के पढ़ा करते हैं।

४०) बैल और बकरे चर रही हैं।
बैल और बकरे चर रहे हैं।

४१) बकरी ने बाघिन को देखी।
बकरी ने बाघिन को देखा।

४२) लता को गीत गानी है।
लता को गीत गाना है।

४३) उसने परीक्षा दिया।
उसने परीक्षा दी।

४४) जो जन्म लेती है वह अवश्य ही मरती है।
जो जन्म लेता है, वह अवश्य ही मरता है।

४५) मैंने को जाना है।
मुझे जाना है।

४६) उस लड़का का क्या नाम है?
उस लड़के का क्या नाम है?

४७) मज़दूरों की सभा हो रहा है।
मजदूरों की सभा हो रही है।

४८) यह दस रुपया का नोट है।
यह दस रुपये का नोट है।

KSEEB Solutions

४९) उनने आपसे क्या कहा?
उन्होंने आपसे क्या कहा?

५०) आप अभी कहाँ जा रहे हो?
आप अभी कहाँ जा रहे हैं?

अतिरिक्त प्रश्नः

1) आज मैंने यह काम करना ही है।
आज मुझे यह काम करना ही है।

2) आज अखिल के जाना है।
अखिल को आज जाना है।

3) तुम्हें ऐसा बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए।
तुम्हें ऐसी बातें नहीं करनी चाहिए।

4) तुम तुम्हारा काम करो।
तुम अपना काम करो।

5) हमने इसको विचार किया है।
हमने इस पर विचार किया है।

6) कोई लड़के को आवाज़ दो।
लड़के को कोई आवाज़ दो।

7) वह जल में पौधे सींचती है।
वह जल से पौधे सींचती है।

8) मैं मंगलवार के दिन आप से मिलूँगा।
मैं आप से मंगलवार के दिन मिलूँगा।

9) वह हिमालय पर्वत पर चढ़ा।
यह हिमालय पर चढ़ा।

10) आप तो नहीं आए पर तुम्हारा भाई आ गया था।
आप तो नहीं आए पर आपका भाई आ गया था।

11) जैसे देश, ऐसा भेष।
जैसा देश, वैसा भेष।

12) वह जहाँ भी गया, उधर का ही हो गया।
वह जहाँ भी गया, वहीं का हो गया।

13) हमारे यहाँ का सब कुछ लुट गया।
हमारे यहाँ सब कुछ लुट गया।

14) यह वही लड़की है इसको इनाम मिला था।
यह वही लड़की है जिसको इनाम मिला था।

15) मेरे को आपकी सलाह नहीं चाहिए।
मुझे आपकी सलाह नहीं चाहिए।

16) वह शीला से लघुतम है।
वह शीला से छोटी है।

17) सब छात्रों में वह महान है।
सभी छात्रों में वह महान है।

18) आप इधर बैठो।
आप इधर बैठिये।

KSEEB Solutions

19) सुनिए, यह काम कर दो।
सुनिए, यह काम कर दीजिए।

20) मैं आपका दर्शन के लिए फ़िर जाऊँगा।
मैं आपके दर्शन के लिए फिर आऊँगा।

21) अब आप जा सकता है।
अब आप जा सकते है।

22) मैंने आगरा जाना है।
मुझे आगरा जाना है।

23) वे एक सप्ताह रुकेगा।
वे एक सप्ताह रुकेंगे।

24) पिता जी आप वहाँ उस जगह बैठो।
पिता जी आप वहाँ उस जगह बैठ जाइए।

25) रमेश तीन आम खाए।
रमेश ने तीन आम खाए।

26) सुरेश, मालती और जूही खाना खा रही हैं।
सुरेश, मालती और जूही खाना खा रहे हैं।

27) तुम किताब पढ़ लिए हैं।
तुमने किताब पढ़ ली हैं।

28) महात्मा गाँधी का देश सदा आभारी रहेगा।
देश सदा महात्मा गाँधी का आभारी रहेगा।

29) शरीर पर कई अंग होते हैं।
शरीर के कई अंग होते हैं।

30) हमारे माता जी मेले में गए हैं।
हमारी माता जी मेले में गयी हैं।

31) मैंने एक व्यक्ति बहुत दुबला-पतला देखा।
मैंने एक बहुत दुबला-पतला व्यक्ति देखा।

32) ये कविता सुनकर आनंद की अनुभव हुआ।
यह कविता सुनकर आनंद का अनुभव हुआ।

33) जलसे में अनेकों लोग उपस्थित थे।
जलसे में अनेक लोग उपस्थित थे।

34) गत मास वह अपने घर पर ही रहेगा।
अगले मास वह अपने घर पर ही रहेगा।

35) हमारे को भी कुछ बताओ।
हमें भी कुछ बताओ।

36) उसके काम करने का ढंग मेरे को पसंद नहीं हैं।
उसके काम करने का ढंग मुझे पसंद नहीं हैं।

37) दस रुपया में यह खिलौना खरीदा है।
दस रुपये में यह खिलौना खरीदा है।

38) तितली के पास सुंदर पंख होते हैं।
तितली के सुंदर पंख होते हैं।

39) बालक छत में खेल रहे हैं।
बालक छत पर खेल रहा हैं।

40) हमने इसको विचार किया।
हमने इस पर विचार किया।

41) मोहन नया पोशाक पहन कर आया है।
मोहन नयी पोशाक पहन कर आया है।

42) उसने पुस्तक पढ़ चुकी है।
उसने पुस्तक पढ़ ली है।

43) मैं मेरे घर जा रहा हूँ।
मैं अपने घर जा रहा हूँ।

KSEEB Solutions

44) हमने अच्छे-अच्छे काम करें।
हमने अच्छे-अच्छे काम किये।

45) उसने पुस्तक पढ़ चुका।
उसने पुस्तक पढ़ ली।

46) मेरा भाई विद्यालय में प्रवेश हो गया।
मेरे भाई ने विद्यालय में प्रवेश ले लिया है।

47) केवल यहाँ दो पुस्तकें हैं।
यहाँ केवल दो पुस्तकें हैं।

48) तुम्हें अभी बहुत बातें सीखना है।
अभी तुम्हें बहुत बातें सीखनी हैं।

49) जब भी आप आओ मुझसे मिलो।
जब भी आप आएँ, मुझसे मिलिए।

50) राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गई।
राम, लक्ष्मण और सीता वन को गए।

51) क्या आप भोजन किए हैं?
क्या आप ने भोजन किया हैं?

52) गत रविवार वह मुंबई जाएगा।
गत रविवार वह मुंबई गया था।

53) उसकी सौंदर्यता पर मैं मोहित हूँ।
उसके सौंदर्य पर मैं मोहित हूँ।

54) सुरेश को, महेश को और रमेश को कल मैंने साथ-साथ देखा था।
सुरेश, महेश और रमेश को कल मैंने साथ-साथ देखा था।

55) प्रस्तुत पंक्तियाँ रामचरितमानस से ली हैं।
प्रस्तुत पंक्तियाँ रामचरितमानस से ली गई हैं।

56) उत्तम चरित्र-निर्माण हमारे लक्ष्य होने चाहिए।
उत्तम चरित्र-निर्माण हमारा लक्ष्य होना चाहिए।

57) प्रधानाचार्य अध्यापक को बुलाए।
प्रधानाचार्य ने अध्यापक को बुलाया।

58) केवल यहाँ दो पुस्तकें रखी हैं।
यहाँ केवल दो ही पुस्तकें रखी हैं।

59) एक फूलों की माला ले आइए।
फूलों की एक माला ले आइए।

60) मेरे को घर जाना है।
मुझे घर जाना है।

61) क्या आप आ सकोगे?
क्या आप आ सकेंगे?

62) क्या आप पढ़ लिए हैं?
क्या आपने पढ़ लिया है?

63) पुलिस ने डाकुओं का पीछा किया गया।
पुलिस ने डाकुओं का पीछा किया।

64) केवल मात्र महिलाओं के लिए आरक्षित।
केवल महिलाओं के लिए आरक्षित है।

65) यहाँ लगभग कोई एक दर्जन के करीब संतरे हैं।
यहाँ लगभग एक दर्जन के करीब संतरे हैं।

66) अध्यापक से हिंदी पढ़ाई है।
अध्यापक ने हिंदी पढ़ाई है।

67) डाकुओं ने चौकी लूटी गई।
डाकुओं से चौकी लूटी गई।

KSEEB Solutions

68) मैं आम खाया गया।
मुझसे आम खाया गया।

69) मोहन ने घर गया और सोया।
मोहन घर जाकर सो गया।

70) वह अभी तक नहीं पहुँचा, उसने इसी गाड़ी से जाना था।
वह अभी तक नहीं पहुंचा, उसे इसी गाड़ी से जाना था।

71) उन सबों ने काम नहीं किया।
उन सब ने काम नहीं किया।

72) वह लोग आ गए हैं।
वे लोग आ गए हैं।

73) मैं तेरे से नहीं बोलता।
मुझे तुमसे नहीं बोलना।

74) हमने इसको विचार किया।
हमने इस पर विचार किया।

75) मुझे एक चाय का गरम प्याला दो।
मुझे एक गरम चाय का प्याला दो।

76) मुंबई मोहन का भाई गया है।
मोहन का भाई मुंबई गया है।

71) अनेकों लोगों ने दूरदर्शन पर क्रिकेट मैच देखा।
अनेक लोगों ने दूरदर्शन पर क्रिकेट मैच देखा।

78) मेरे को अभी विद्यालय जाना है।
मुझे अभी विद्यालय जाना है।

79) मोहन ने रोटी खाया।
मोहन ने रोटी खाई।

80) मैंने तेरे को पुस्तक दी।
मैंने तुम्हें पुस्तक दी।

81) वहाँ अनेकों लोग आए हुए थे।
वहाँ कई लोग आए हुए थे।

82) आपको अभी बहुत बातें सीखना है।
आपको अभी बहुत बातें सीखनी है।

83) बालक छत में खेल रहे हैं।
बालक छत पर खेल रहे हैं।

84) केवल यहाँ दो पुस्तकें हैं।
यहाँ केवल दो पुस्तकें हैं।

85) मैंने भी आपके साथ चलना है।
मुझे भी आपके साथ चलना है।

86) यह तो मेरा पुस्तक है।
यह तो मेरी पुस्तक है।

87) मैने तेरे को पुस्तक दी थी।
मैंने तुम्हें पुस्तक दी थी।

88) तेरे को पिता जी ने बुलाया है।
तुम्हें पिता जी ने बुलाया है।

89) लड़का ने पत्र लिखा।
लड़के ने पत्र लिखा।

90) कृपया मेरे घर आने की कृपा करें।
कृपया मेरे घर आने का कष्ट करें।

91) कल तुमने घर में क्या करा था?
कल तुमने घर में क्या किया था?

KSEEB Solutions

92) संभवत यह आज अवश्य आएगा।
आज संभवतः यह अवश्य आएगा।

93) तुम्हारा बोलना मेरे को पसंद नहीं है।
तुम्हारा बोलना मुझे पसंद नहीं है।

94) मेरे को लड्डू अच्छे नहीं लगते।
मुझे लड्डू अच्छे नहीं लगते।

95) ऐसा विनाश देखकर मेरा तो प्राण ही निकल गया।
ऐसा विनाश देखकर मेरे तो प्राण ही निकल गये।

96) इस पत्र पर अपना हस्ताक्षर कर दीजिए।
इस पत्र पर अपने हस्ताक्षर कर दीजिए।

97) कृपया, मुझे दो दिन का अवकाश देने की कृपा करें।
कृपया, मुझे दो दिन का अवकाश देने का कष्ट करें।

98) जहाँ तुम जाओगे, मैं जाऊँगा।
तुम जहाँ जाओगे, मैं वहाँ आऊँगा।

99) तेरे का घर मुझे मालूम है।
तुम्हारा घर मुझे मालूम है।

100) गर्म गाय का दूध स्वास्थ्यवर्धक होता है।
गाय का गर्म दूध स्वास्थ्यवर्धक होता है।

101) रोटी तो मिल गया लेकिन सब्जी नहीं मिली।
रोटी तो मिल गयी लेकिन सब्जी नहीं मिली।

102) हमारे को भी कुछ बताओ।
हमें भी कुछ बताओ।

103) यहाँ ताज़ा गन्ने का रस मिलता है।
यहाँ गन्ने का ताजा रस मिलता है।

1st PUC Sociology Question Bank Chapter 8 Environment and Society

Karnataka 1st PUC Sociology Question Bank Chapter 8 Environment and Society

You can Download Chapter 8 Environment and Society Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Sociology Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Sociology Environment and Society One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Environment?
Answer:
Environment means “That which surrounded us” or “environus”, which is helpful to man’s existence and progress has been divided into physical, biological and social environments.

Question 2.
How the term environment derived?
Answer:
The word environment is derived from the French word ‘Environ’ which means all that surrounds us.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term Ecology?
Answer:
The term “eco” derived from Greek word, which means home. The concept of ecology indicate the entire world is a home for all living things and they are mutually related in the total environment.

Question 4.
Define Social Ecology.
Answer:
Social ecology to carry out studies on how living begins continuously adjust themselves to the environment around them.

Question 5.
What is pollution?
Answer:
According to P. H. Collin “pollution refers centralization of polluting things, created by man”.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 6.
What is Air Pollution?
Answer:
According to oxford dictionary, air pollution means “The compounds that get mixed with the atmosphere causes dangerous effects on useful plants, animals and human begins”.

Question 7.
What is Water Pollution?
Answer:
Any activity of human begins resulting in variations in the water quality is known as water pollution.

Question 8.
What is Social pollution?
Answer:
The decreases in the quality of the soil and changes in it due to various activities of the human is called as soil pollution.

Question 9.
What is pollution by Solid Waste?
Answer:
A Pollution, chemical fertilizers, medicine and pesticides usage, industrial wastages and agricultural wastes are causing soil pollution.

Question 10.
Who introduced the concept of Greenhouse effect?
Answer:
Joseph Fourier.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 11.
What is Ozone layer?
Answer:
Ozone layer is a natural protation. This gas layer protects the Earth from Sun’s ultraviolet rays entering it.

1st PUC Sociology Environment and Society Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 12.
What are the types of environment?
Answer:
They are four types of environment they are:

  • Physical environment
  • Biological environment
  • Social environment
  • The science of ecology

Question 13.
Mention branches of Ecology.
Answer:

  • Animal Ecology
  • Plant Ecology
  • Human or Social Ecology.

Question 14.
What are the sources of pollution?
Answer:
The sources of pollution are:

  • Air pollution
  • Water pollution
  • Solid pollution.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 15.
Mention any two natural environment disasters.
Answer:

  1. Earth quakes
  2. Floods
  3. Nature calamites etc.
  4. Air pollution
  5. Soil Pullution.

Question 16.
Mention any two Manmade environment disasters.
Answer:
Spreading pollutants like smoke tar and dust

  • More population growing now days
  • Introducing more factor, industry etc.

Question 17.
What is Global warming?
Answer:
Mother earth in the essence of the birth and fastening of all living creatures, the earth’s temperature increases when water vapour, carbon di oxide, methane, other harmful gases get collected in environment and this gases do not find an other naturally increases the earth’s temperature is known as Global warming.

Question 18.
What is Acid rain?
Answer:
Factories and vehicles excrete sulphuric, Nitrogen oxides. These remain the environment for longtime. By chemical and photo chemical reac tions, sulphuric acid and nitric acid are formed and combines with water vapors in the environment, This is called ‘Acid Rain’.

Question 19.
What is Green house effect?
Answer:
Deforestation is one of the main reasons for this global warming Co2, Methane, Carbon Monoxide, Nitric acid etc, results in increase in temperature of the globe. Joseph Fourier frend out this facts and called it as Green House Effects.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 20.
What is Biodiversity?
Answer:
It is the existence of a wide variety of species plants, animals and micro organisms in a natural habitatant within a particular environment or of genetic variation with in a species. All living organism have maintained their specific quality we find air water and temperature on this – earth including micro organisms birds and butterflies, aquatic plants and animals, wild animals like dinosaurs etc. all live on the earth

Question 21.
Mention any two environment movements.
Answer:

  1. In 1993 chipco movement
  2. 1983 Appiko movement.

1st PUC Sociology Environment and Society Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain types of Environment.
Answer:
The word Environment is derived from the French word “Environ” which means all that surrounds us.
Environment which is helpful to man’s existence and progress has been divided into physical, biological and social environments

Physical Environment: It consists of earth, water, mountains and hills, forests, planets, stars, lakes, minerals sources etc., This is called Physical or Natural Environment. The Physical Environment is not created by man: hence it is called the Natural environment.

Biological Environment: This category of environment includes all living things on • earth. For the production and growth of all living creatures, environment is complimentary and protecting.

Social Environment: Social Environment is man-made. Social environment is nothing but the collective and cooperative life of human beings. Sociologists feel that “man is a social animal and one cannot live without society”. For the survival of mankind there must be a cordial relationship with environment.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 2.
Write a note on types of pollution.
Answer:
The types of environment pollution are:
Air PollutionrAir pollution is caused by unwanted and rejected things in the atmosphere around us. According to Oxford dictionary air pollution means “The compound’s that get mixed with the atmosphere causes dangerous effects on useful plants, animals and human being.-,

Water Pollution: Water is essemial for all living things 2/3 portion on the earth is covered by watei, 97.2% of water on earth is mixed with solids and rest 2.8% only is left for drinking purpose Watei pollution occurs in three different forms

  • Inland pollution.
  • Underground pollution
  • Sea pollution.

Noise Pollution: Intolerable sound is considered as sound pollution, because intense sound result in physical and mental stress and also irritation. Sound pollution is also result due to various activities of human begins. Intensity of sound is measured in decibels while talking usual intensity of sound is 60 decibels.

Soil Pollution: The upper most layer of the earth is consisted of “Soil” This soil layer is * formed by the natural processes from millions of years. This layer supplies the necessary nutrients essential for the growth of the plants. The soil which feeds the plants is the reason for the existence of all biological system.

The decrease in the quality of the soil and changes in it due to various activities of the humans is called as soil pollution. Soil pollution lessens the productive nature of the soil and destroys the living beings in it and also its rejuvinable process.

Question 3.
What is Bio diversity? Describe.
Answer:
Only the earth has provided essential environment to all kinds of species. The earth has been evolved since 460 billions of years. Since then evolution has been taking place stage by stage It is the existence of a wide variety of species- plants, animals and micro-organisms in a natural habitant within a particular environment or of genetic variation with in a species.

All living organisms have maintained their specific quality. We find air, water and temperature on this earth including micro organisms, birds and butterflies, aquatic plants and animals, wild animals like Dinosaurs etc., all live on this earth.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
What are the effects of Global warming?
Answer:
The effects of Global warming
Mother earth is the essence for the birth and fastening of all living creatures. The earth’s temperature increases when water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, other harmful gases get collected in environment and when these gases do not find, an outlet naturally increase the earth’s temperature.

The whole ecological system is endangered by global warming. Wind movement is affected untimely rains, increase in temperature are the changes that occur It is a serious responsibility of the civilized world to control global warming and greenhouse effects. Preventive measures to be undertaken to control warming to protect the environment from greenhouse effects should impose strict laws on the excessive use of fuels. Use of chloro-phoro carbon chemicals should be banned totally.

Question 5.
What do you know about Acid Rain?
Answer:
Acid rain: Factories and vehicles excrete sulphur, Nitrogen oxide. These remain the environment for longtime. By chemical and photo chemical reactions, sulphuric acid and nitric acid are formed and combines with water vapor in the environment. This is called ‘Acid Rain’.

One country’s waste will be result in another countries acid rain. For example waste from factories and vehicles in India reaches environment and sulphur, corbondioxide will causes acid rain in Pakistan and China.

Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid form the atmosphere is deposited on the earth’s surface. Polluted things like sulphur, oxides and nitrogen oxides, coal, petroleum based coal then bum the smoke contributes to acid rain. Idol/ marbles will be leached because of acid rain. Leaves in the forests will be dropped down. Acid rain when they falls on the leaves destroys it.

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Question 6.
What is geographic environment and manmade environment ?
Answer:
Geographic environment is also called natural environment for it consists of things that are provided by nature, this can also be called physical environment for it includes the physical conditions of life. The geographic or physical conditions exist independently of man’s existence. Man has limited and sometimes no control over them. This environment includes; the surface of the earth, natural resources, land and water, mountains and plains, fertile lands, and deserts, oceans, storms and cyclones, weather and climatic factors, seasons, etc. it includes biological conditions such as plants and animals with all theory complexities.

In order to control the conditions of his life man has created a new environment which can be called man made environment and some have called it socio cultural environment. Man through the introduction of science and technology has tried to modify the conditions of physical environment. It can be understood as outer environment, we what we are today, is because of the modifications of physical environment introduced by man’s technology.

It includes our hoses and cities our means of transport and communication, our comforts and conveniences, it also includes the vast systems of industry and machinery create by man. It covers in brief the whole apparatus of our civilization. Some anthropologists have called this part of socio¬cultural environment, material culture.

Question 7.
What is the functional importance of natural environment for the human beings?
Answer:
The application of human ecological perspective points out at the three basic functions of natural environment for the human beings and also for many other animal species.

The Environment provides the resources essential for life. These resources include air, water and materials used to create shelter, transportation and such other needed products. If human beings exhaust these resources in an irresponsible way for example by polluting the water supply or destroying rain forests then serious consequences will be the result The environment houses our species: Environment is our home, our living space, the place where we reside work and play, at times we take this truth for granted, but some others times we forget it and make our own living conditions very unpleasant and horrible.

It is only when our air becomes heavy with smoke, dust etc., if our tap water turns brown, if toxic chemicals seep into our garden- only then we remember why it is vital to live in a healthy environment The environment serves as a waste respiratory: more than any other species on earth human beings produce a huge quantity and variety of products- bottles, boxes, papers, plastics, sewage, garbage, and so on. Various types of pollution have become more common ‘ because human societies are generating more waste than the environment can safely absorb.

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1st PUC Sociology Environment and Society Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes for environmental pollution?
Answer:
The word Environment is derived from the French word “Environ” which means all that surrounds us.

Air Pollution:
Air pollution is caused by unwanted and rejected things in the atmosphere around us. According to Oxford dictionary air pollution means “The compounds that get mixed with the atmosphere causes dangerous effects on useful plants, animals and human beings”.

Causes for Air pollution: Man’s activities in the name of the modernization have damaged the living species. Man’s activities are also responsible for polluting air, causing dirt, dust and smoke. The Natural disasters like volcanic eruption, forest fire and bacteria also cause air pollution. Man has created industries, vehicles, atomic energy, excessive use of Petrol and other source of energy like Coal, and different types of mining also cause air pollution.

Water Pollution:
Water is essential for all living things 2/3 portion on the earth is covered by water, 97.2% of water on earth is mixed with solids and rest 2.8% only is left for drinking purpose.

Water pollution occurs in three different forms.

  • Inland pollution.
  • Underground pollution
  • Sea pollution.

Causes for water pollution: Water pollution is due to many factors. Factory wastes, Houses hold wastes and water from agricultural land, all these contributions to water pollution. Biological contamination like gutter water, food processing factories, skin and hide processing factories, insecticides,.drugs, various chemical colours contributes to water pollution.

Noise Pollution
Intolerable sound is considered as sound pollution, because intense sound result in physical and mental stress and also irritation. Sound pollution is also result due to various activities of human begins. Intensity of sound is measured in decibels while talking usual intensity of sound is 60 decibels.

Soil Pollution
The upper most layer of the earth is consisted of “Soil” This soil layer is formed by the natural processes from millions of years. This layer supplies the necessary nutrients essential for the growth of the plants. The soil which feeds the plants is the reason for the existence of all biological system.

The decrease in the quality of the soil and changes in it due to various activities of the humans is called as soil pollution. Soil pollution lessens the productive nature of the soil and destroys the living beings in it and also its rejuvinable process.

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Question 2.
Explain the effects of environment pollution on society.
Answer:
Effects of Air pollution
Air pollution is a extensive problem badly affecting Man’s health, plants and Animals.

  • The minute particles of Sulphuric Dioxide, Coal, Silica, Barium and other chemicals cause lung cancer, heart diseases like hypertension.
  • Due to rapid technological radiation anemia, Leukemia, Cancer, Physical weakness are caused.
  • Due to air pollution world famous marble Taj Mahal is getting destroyed stage by stage. The rare intricate carvings are getting spoiled day by day.
  • Due to use of different fuels the temperature of the earth is increasing. This is called as Green house effect
  • The photo synthesis activities of plants and trees are showing down due to dirt and dust getting collected on leaves every day. This is sole reason for decreasing levels of oxygen in the air.

Effects of water pollution:

Water pollution leads to so many side effects. Those are:

  • Contaminated water results in various water borne diseases like cholera, typhoid, Diarrhea, dysentery and other infectious diseases.
  • Contaminated water prevents photosynthesis and retards the growth of Plants and trees.
  • Because of oil leakage into the sea plants, sea animals and birds die. Every’ year nearly 50000 to 250000 birds die due to oil pollution of sea water.
  • Water pollution leads to damage of ozone layer.
  • If polluted water is used for agriculture, Poisonous/ dangerous molecules are added to the food by products. Agriculture yield also reduced by 17% to 30% if polluted water is used Effects of noise pollution

Sound pollution result in various effects. These are as follows:

  • If the sound is more than 120-150 decibels, it results in respiratory disorders, physical imbalance, vomiting and deafness.
  • Sound pollution results in mental problem, disinterest in the work and leads to many mistakes. It also has effects on Animals and birds behavior
  • It increase heart rate, B.P and other heart related problems
  • Contribution is affected resulting in loss of memory.

Effects on soil Pollution
Soil is one of the main source of the nature of pollution of the soil will leads to so many negative effects.

  • Reduction in the crop yield
  • The food obtained by the contaminated soil will spoil the human health
  • Soil contamination leads to the water scarcity in some regions causing the death of animal multitude
  • Contamination of soil will leads to the water pollution

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Question 3.
Explain why environmental problems are also social problems?
Answer:
Pollution from the solid waste: The waste things those thrown out by the human beings that is domestic things and the pollution caused by their processing is the pollution of solid waste, if the thrown out things are put in a particular place in a cone shape in one year, height will equal to that of mount Everest every year in whole the world, 1000 tonnes of solid wastes thrown out.

The responsibility of recycling the solids wastes does by preventing the damage to the environment is on the modern society. The solid wastes must be controlled in the production stage itself the wastes must be divided and processed, and be used for compost manufacturing. The technology must improve for recycling the solid wastes and for preventing the harm.

Sea pollution: Even the sea water is not out of pollution. The industrial wastes chemicals, the . oil leakage occurred by the petroleum transporting, ships will imbalance the biological system of the sea. Mow the sea atmosphere is so much polluted so that the aqueous animals cannot be live there. Pouring of pollution causing things to the sea., thereby making the sea water unfit for the life of aqueous animals is called as sea pollution.

Global warming:Mother earth is the essence for the birth and fastening of all living creatures. The earth’s temperature increases when water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, other harmful gases get collected in environment and when these gases do not find, an outlet naturally increase the earth’s temperature.

The whole ecological system is endangered by global warming. Wind movement is affected untimely rains, increase in temperature are the changes that occur.

It is a serious responsibility of the civilized world to control global warming and green house effects. Preventive measures to be under taken to control warming to protect the environment from greenhouse effects should be impose strict laws on the excessive use of fuels. Use of chloro-phoro carbon chemicals should be banned totally.

Destruction of Ozone layer: In 1982 Foreman the scientist reported about the hole in ozone layer. On Antarctic earth surface. Ozone layer is a natural protection. This gas layer protects the earth surface from sun’s ultraviolet rays entering it.

As the ozone layer slowly getting damaged by the global warming threatening living species on the earth. Ultraviolet rays causes skin cancer. If man is continuously exposed to ultra violet rays his resistance power will decrease. This leads to health related problems like herpes, eyesight and cataract.

Acid rain: Factories and vehicles excrete sulphur, Nitrogen oxide. These remain the environment for longtime. By chemical and photo chemical reactions, sulphuric acid and nitric acid are formed and combines with water vapor in the environment.

Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid form the atmosphere is deposited on the earth’s surface. Polluted things like sulphur, oxides and nitrogen oxides, coal, petroleum based coal then burn the smoke contributes to acid rain. Idol/ marbles will be leached because of acid rain. Leaves in the forests will be dropped down. Acid rain when they falls on the leaves destroys it.

One country’s waste will be result in another countries acid rain. For example waste from factories and vehicles in India reaches environment and sulphur, Corbondioxide will causes acid rain in Pakistan and China.

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Question 4.
Explain legal and constitutional measures for Environmental pollution.
Answer:
The legal and constitutional measures are:

As per 1948 rule it’s a mandatory to get permission from the granting commissions for establishment and extension of the factories. From this policy which directs the factories will have the full information about the chemical that can spill out from the factories .

The Atomic energy rule (1962). Each and every matter relating to the atomic energy will be directly affiliated to the Central government. This rule controls and directs the atomic energy related matters.

The 1972 rule of Wild life protection provided complete protection to the wild life and birds. As per the directed of this rule every state government and centralized states must create a committee for wild life suggestion. This law restricts the hunting of wild animals violates of this law will be punished .

Control and prevention of Water pollution act (1974) has enforced and the water pollution is prohibited through this law and for prevention of water pollution a special rule in 1981 is introduced( prevention on control of air pollution)

Environment protection act (1986) have intended to protect and improve the environment; it implements nationwide programs on environment pollution and encourages the researches on Environment Pollution.

The Motor vehicles act 1988 control the air pollution caused by the vehicle traffic.

The noise pollution act of 1989: This law controls the decibels of the sounds residential places, schools and colleges, hospitals, courts premises are declared as silent zones and prohibits using mikes crackers etc. in these areas.

1991 rule of Public Security: the Government of India has introduced this law in 1991 this law suggested to establish a environment solution fund and provided security to the citizen, it enables to lodge a criminal cases on the law breakers.

State pollution control board is active in state level and with the co-ordination of central pollution control board is engaged in the environment protection. Environment department will implement many works regarding environment protection.

Question 5.
What is the role of individual and society in environment protection?
Answer:
The role of individual and society in environment pollution
Environment pollution is the Global problem caused by the modern industrial society, it’s a primary duty of every governments and sensible civilians:

  • To bring out the policies of environment and industries which are coordinate to environment protection
  • To control the uncontrolled urbanization and un-scientific urbanization through good city planning.
  • The water from the factories and domestic usage must be processed and let<to rivers and sea.
  • Prohibit the plastic use, inorganic waste things must be processed in for away places and can made to re-use
  • To establish separate dust bins to dry and raw wastes to help the public
  • Environment protection must be a main agenda for the public
  • Each and every one of the workers belt, with collars, and everyone must feel that the protection of environment is their first duty.
  • The researches about the environment protection must be encouraged through funding
  • All the projects regarding the Environment Protection must be implemented duly and succeed.
  • Use toilets must be mandatory
  • Bringing awareness in the public regarding the side effects of pesticides and the medicines.
  • To encourage organic agriculture.

The Government and private organizations role in India’s environment protection is important. In 1969 on the request by the Government of India for the protection of nature a fund for the nature protection is established. In 1980 Environment department and in 1983 environment, forestry and wild life departments are established.

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Question 6.
What is the major environment issues associated with pollution?
Answer:
The environment loses in balance due to man’s activities and this in turn affects the all living things on this plant in harmful way. American arthoropologist Margaret Mead has remarked that “Pollution in the greatest challenge created by the growing mofem and technological civilization of the city.

Question 7.
What are the causes of Environmental pollution?
Answer:
Population is caused by many factors among which the following may be noted:
Abuse of Nature by man for his Greed: Of all the living organisms it is only man who is causing pollution. Man’s attempts to use natural resources for genuine purposes are not problematic; but their greed by him, is causing this problem. According Write- “human greed and ignorance have allowed our culture to develop an ecological crisis like pollution”.

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2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 2 Elections and Party System In India

Karnataka 2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 2 Elections and Party System In India

You can Download Chapter 2 Elections and Party System In India, Notes, 2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

2nd PUC Political Science Elections and Party System In India One Mark Questions and Answers One mark questions and answers:

Question 1.
Who elects the representatives in Democratic system.
Answer:
People elects the representatives in democratic system.

Question 2.
Who determines the destiny of Political parties in Democracy?
Answer:
People determines the destiny of political parties in Democracy.

Question 3.
What is the root word of Election?
Answer:
The word Election is derived from the Latin word ‘eligere’.

Question 4.
What is Election? (March 2015)
Answer:
A process of electing the representatives by the people is called Election.

Question 5.
Through what the will of the people is expressed?
Answer:
The will of the people will be expressed through the elections.

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Question 6.
What is popular government?
Answer:
The voters by exercising their franchise elect political party of their choice to form democratic government is called popular government.

Question 7.
What is General Election?
Answer:
Elections are held periodically once in a five years, where all the voters exercise their voting rights is called general elections.

Question 8.
What is by Election?
Answer:
Election is held generally to fill the vacancy arising due to the death or resignation or disqualification of an elected member, it is called by election.

Question 9.
HSI What is Repoll?
Answer:
Election is held when the elections are disrupted due to irregularities, it is called repoll.

Question 10.
What is Midterm Election?
Answer:
Elections are held when the Lower House is dissolved before the completion of its term, it is called midterm election.

Question 11.
What is the foundation of democratic government?
Answer:
Elections are the foundations of democratic government.

Question 12.
Which is the barometer of Democracy?
Answer:
Elections are the barometer of Democracy.

Question 13.
What is Direct Election?
Answer:
All the eligible voters of the Nation directly elect their representatives without any intermediaries, it is called Direct Election.

Question 14.
Give an example to Direct Election.
Answer:
Loksabha elections are the example of Direct Election.

Question 15.
What is Indirect Election?
Answer:
Leaders of the Government are elected by the representatives but not by the people, it is called Indirect Election.

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Question 16.
Give an example to Indirect Election.
Answer:
President is an example of Indirect Election.

Question 17.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
All the voters who attained the age of 18 years can exercise their voting power without any discrimination, it is called Universal Adult Franchise.

Question 18.
What is the minimum age for the voters in India? (July 2018)
Answer:
The minimum age for the voters in India is 18 years.

Question 19.
How many Election Commissioners are there in India? (March 2018)
Answer:
One Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners are there in Election Commission of India.

Question 20.
Who appoints the Election Commissioners of India? (A) (March 2016)
Answer:
President of India appoints the Election Commissioners of India.

Question 21.
What is the term of office of the Election Commissioners?
Answer:
6 years of service or 65 years of age whichever is earlier.

Question 22.
Who determines the emoluments of Election Commissioners?
Answer:
Parliament determines the emoluments of Election Commissioners.

Question 23.
Who determines the service rules of Election Commissioners?
Answer:
Parliament determines the service rules of Election Commissioners.

Question 24 .
Salaries of the Election Commissioners are borne from which fund?
Answer:
Salaries of the Election Commissioners are borne from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Question 25.
Expand EPIC. (July 2015)
Answer:
Electors Photo Identity Card.

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Question 26.
When was the EPIC introduced first in India?
Answer:
EPIC was first introduced in India in 1993

Question 27.
Who made the EPIC compulsory?
Answer:
M.S Gill made the EPIC compulsory.

Question 28.
When the EVMS were introduced for the first time?
Answer:
The EVMs were introduced for the first time in India in 1998.

Question 29.
When did the Negative option voting come into practice?
Answer:
The Negative option voting came in to practice in 2014.

Question 30.
Name one committee which recommended for the state funding of Elections.
Answer:
Indrajit Guptha Committee recommended for the state funding of Elections.

Question 31.
What is meant by political party?
Answer:
A group organized by people for a common purpose of attaining political power through democratic methods is called political party

Question 32.
Name the party system which is prevalent in India. (July 2016)
Answer:
The party system which prevailed in India is Multi Part} system.

Question 33.
Give an example where hi party system is in practice.
Answer:
Bi Party system is practice in USA.

Question 34.
Which is the best example for single party system?
Answer:
Russia is the best example for single party system.

Question 35.
What is multi party system?
Answer:
The presence of more than two political parties in a country is called Multi Party System.

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Question 36.
What is National Party?
Answer:
A party which gains 6% of casted valid votes in 4 or more States in Lok Sabha is called National Party.

Question 37.
What is Regional Party. (July 2017)
Answer:
A party which gains 6% of valid votes in the Lok Sabha or Vidhana Sabha elections from the state is called Regional Party.

Question 38.
Who acts as the watch dog of Democracy?
Answer:
Opposition party acts as the watch dog of democracy.

Question 39.
What is the ideology of leftist party?
Answer:
The ideology of the leftist party is belief in revolutionary ideology and drastic changes in the system.

Question 40.
Give an example to leftist Party.
Answer:
Communist Party of India is an example to Leftist Party7.

Question 41.
State an ideology of the rightist party.
Answer:
The ideology of the Rightist Party is belief I moderate changes in the system.

Question 42.
Give an example to rightist party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janatha Party is an example to Rightist Party.

Question 43.
Who was the founder of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
A.O. Hume was the founder of Indian National Congress.

Question 44.
When was the INC established? (July 2015)
Answer:
The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.

Question 45.
Expand INC.
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

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Question 46.
Expand NOTA. (March 2015)
Answer:
None Of The Above.

Question 47.
What was the main objective of INC?
Answer:
Attaining freedom from England was the main objective of INC.

Question 48.
Why did the Muslim League established?
Answer:
Muslim League was established for the separate Pakistan.

Question 49.
Expand NDA. (March 2018)
Answer:
National Democratic Alliance.

Question 50.
Expand UPA.
Answer:
United Progressive Alliance.

Question 51.
When did the BJP came into existence?
Answer:
The BJP came into existence in 1980.

Question 52.
What is Defection?
Answer:
An elected representative who migrates from one party to another party for benefits is called Defection

Question 53.
When did the Anti-defection Act came into force? (March 2016)
Answer:
The Anti-defection Act came into force on 1st April 1985.

Question 54.
What is Anti-defection Law?
Answer:
A law which restrict the representatives from migrating from one part) to another party is called Anti-defection Law.

Question 55.
Who enforced Anti-defection Law?
Answer:
Sri Rajiv Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India enforced Anti-defection Law

Question 56.
Which committee recommended for multi number election commission?
Answer:
Dinesh Goswami committee recommended for multi number election commission

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2nd PUC Political Science Elections and Party System In India Two marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
How is political awareness brought about in Democracy?
Answer:
People can get political awareness by participating in the elections through voting and studying the ideologies of all the parties.

Question 2.
Ballet is more powerful than bullet in Democracy. How?
Answer:
Bullet can end one’s life but ballet can end the destiny of one political party. So ballet is more powerful than bullet in democracy.

Question 3.
What is Direct Election? Give an example. (July 2015)
Answer:
When the voters directly participate in elections and choose their representatives, it is known as direct election. Every  voter goes to the polling booth and castes his vote in favour of a candidate of his choice. E.g.. Members of Lok Sabha and State assembly Elections,

Question 4.
What is Indirect Election? Give an example. (March 2016)
Answer:
An election in which the people do not elect the representatives directly is known as indirect election. People elect intermediary voters who form an electoral college which in turn elects the representatives. Eg. Members of Rajya Sabha and State Council elections.

Question 5.
What is Universal Adult Franchise? Where is it in practice?
Answer:
All adult citizens must be given the right to vote. There can be no discrimination on the basis of caste, creed, sex, religion, wealth, it is known as universal adult franchise. It is in practice in India.

Question 6.
How does political awareness brought about in Direct Democracy?
Answer:
People can have an opportunity to participate in the political activities in Direct Election system without any intermediaries. They knows the political ideologies of all die parties and hence political awareness brought in direct election.’

Question 7.
How Electoral College is constituted?
Answer:
Electoral college is constituted to elect the President which consists of the elected members of both the houses of parliament and elected members of all the state assemblies.

Question 8.
Which Article of the Constitution of India is related to Election Commission?
Answer:
Article 324 to 329 of Indian Constitution relates to Election Commission.

Question 9.
What is the main objective of Election Commission of India?
Answer:
The main objectives of the election commission of India is to conduct free and fair elections periodically throughout the country.

Question 10.
State the method of impeachment of the Chief Election Commissioners in India.
Answer:
According to Article 324(5). the Chief Election Commissioner and other Eelection Commissioners can be removed from their office in the same manner as the judges of Supreme Court on the ground of proved misbehavior and incapacity to discharge their Constitutionally obligations.

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Question 11.
Name any two committees that recommended for electoral reforms.
Answer:
(a) Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998).
(b) Justice Kuldeep Singh Committee (2002) are the two committees that recommended for electoral reforms.

Question 12.
Define political party according to Edmund Burke.
Answer:
According to Edmund Burke. ‘Political party is a group of people united to promote rational interests by its joint endeavors”.

Question 13.
What is Single Party System? Give an example.
Answer:
The prevalence of single political party in a country is called Single Party System. Eg.China.

Question 14.
What is Bi-Party System? Give an example.
Answer:
The existence of two political parties I the country is called Bi-Party System. Eg.USA

Question 15.
What is Multi-Party System?Give an example. (July 2016/2015)
Answer:
The presence of more than two political parties in a country is called Multi Party Sy stem. Eu. India.

Question 16.
State the contents of election manifesto of political parties.
Answer:
The manifestoes contain objectives, principles, ideologies and aims of the political parties

Question 17.
What are the other names of defection.
Answer:
The other names of defection are Floor Crossing, Carpet Crossing , Turned costs and Fence Sitters

Question 18.
What is coalitian government (July 2017)
Answer:
Formation of government by various political parties with common minimum programme is known as coalitian government

Question 19.
Name any two National Parties (July 2015)
Answer:

  1. Bharatiya janatha party
  2. Indian National Congress

Question 20.
Name any two Regional parties (March 2015)
Answer:

  1. janatha Dal (s)
  2. Telugu Desam are the two Regional Parties

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2nd PUC Political Science Elections and Party System In India Five marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
Explain the importance of elections in Democracy.
Answer:
The importance of elections in democracy are as follows:
(a) Election is the foundation of democratic government.
(b) It is the key component to provide justice and freedom to all without any discrimination.
(c) It gives a citizen an opportunity to have one’s voice heard and a choice by which one should be governed.
(d) It is the Barometer of democracy and serves as forum for the discussion of public issues and facilitates the expression of public opinion.
(e) It imparts political education and training to voters to actively participate in the activities of the nation.
(f) It protects the interests of the minorities by providing representation in the legislature.
(g) It contributes to the continuation of democratic government and enables the peaceful transfer of power.

Question 2.
Transfer of power is done peacefully through elections. Justify.
Answer:
Elections are inevitable and essential in the modern democratic system. People are the ultimate sovereign authority. People can have an opportunity to elect their representatives by using their voting power and hence they plays an important role in choosing the government.

Here people may determine the destiny of political parties. Power shall be transferred peacefully without any violent way. During the time of elections each and even parties bring their manifestoes before the voters and tries to gain their confidence through various popular schemes and programmes.

People are able to understand the ideologies olf the parties and elect the representatives on their own choice. After the elections, the majority party forms the government and tries to administer the country on the basis of its party manifestoes and thus fulfill the needs and aspirations of the people. So transfer of power is done peacefully through elections in the democratic system.

Question 3.
Explain the features of Direct Elections. (July 2016)
Answer:
(a) Eligible voters have wider choice to elect their representatives directly. It provides for direct relationship between the voter and their representatives.
(b) There is a direct relationship between voters and the representatives in the direct election system and hence the representatives should effectively respond to the needs of the people.
(c) In the direct election, voters come in direct contact with their representatives and can get the remedies for their grievances.
(d) In this system, the voters can get political awareness by participating directly in the process of election.
(e) Here the voters are able to guage the performance, capability of the candidates and finally elect the good and best candidates.
(f) In view of the forthcoming elections, representatives keep regular contact with the constituency and people.

Question 4.
Explain the features of Indirect Elections. (March 2016, 2019)
Answer:
(a) In this system, the heads of the government are elected by the intelligent voters. For example the President of India is elected by the members of Parliament and State Assemblies.
(b) It avoids all sorts of evils like dirty propaganda tricks, instigation of people for petty issues to divide them as in the direct election system.
(c) In this method there is no scope for illegal activities or fights during the election as it happens in the direct election.
(d) In this system, there is no scope for members to influence the voters or misusing sensitive issues for political gains.
(e) Since majority of the voters are ignorant, not educated and intelligent in a countries like India, small group of politically educated and wise voters elect responsible representatives.

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Question 5.
Write the organization of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Article 324 of Indian Constitution provides for the office of the Election Commission of India. It consists of three members. According to Article 342(2) Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet. The term of office is 6 years of service or 65 years of age whichever is earlier. Article 324(6) makes provision for the salaries, allowances and other privileges of the Election Commissioners and personnel.

The Parliament determines their salaries an”d borne by the Consolidated fund of India. According to Article 324(5). the Election Commissioners can be removed from their office in the same manner as the Judges of Supreme Court on the ground of proven misbehavior and incapability to discharge their constitutional obligations.

Question 6.
Explain the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. (July 2015)
Answer:
The powers and functions of the Election Commission of India are as follows:
(a) Prepares electoral roll and its periodical revision.
(b) Holds elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and Offices of President and Vice President.
(c) It issues the time table for elections in different phases.
(d) It conducts by-election to vacant seats and re-poll in any booth.
(e) It grants recognition to political parties as National and Regional parties and allots symbols.
(f) It scrutinizes the nomination papers.
(g) It appoints officers and other staff members to conduct election and make necessary arrangements.
(h) It undertake the counting process and announce the results.
(i) It enforces code of conduct for the candidates during election.

Question 7.
Prepare a list of Chief Election Commissioners of India since 1950.
Answer:
2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 2 Elections and Party System In India - 1
2nd PUC Political Science Question Bank Chapter 2 Elections and Party System In India - 1

Question 8.
Write the merits of Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC).
Answer:
The Electors Photo Identity Card is first introduced by the then Chief Election Commissioner
T.N. Sheshan in 1993. Follow ing are the merits:
(a) It removes the evil practices like corruption, impersonation and bogus voting.
(b) Free and fair elections can be conducted by introducing EPIC.
(c) The real voter can casts the vote by using EPIC.
(d) EPIC is essential to conduct the elections transparently and honestly.
(e) It is an official document issued by the Election Commission to all the eligible voters.
(f) It can also use to get the various benefits of the government.

Question 9.
What are the uses of Electronic Voting Machine? (March 2015-2017)
Answer:
The Electronic Voting Machine is first introduced in 1998. Its uses are as follows:
(a) In this system, the pace of poll is very simple. Voter can press the button against the name of the candidate of his choice.
(b) It can be easily operated and saves time.
(c) It avoids printing of lakhs of ballot papers and thus it is economic and eco friendly.
(d) It avoids invalid votes and irregularities and useful to illiterates.
(e) It ensures the principle of one man one vote.
(f) By using EVMs. accurate result can be declared fastly.

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Question 10.
Write about the mandatory disclosures of criminal antecedents of the contestants. (July 2017)
Answer:
To curb criminalization of politics, it is compulsory for all the candidates to show their criminal details while filing the nominations as per the Supreme Court decisions. Disqualification for criminal offences is provided in Representation of Peoples” Act 1951.
(a) As per the Act a person is disqualified from contesting election only on conviction by the court of law.
(b) Cases filed 6 months before election would lead to disqualification.
(c) Cases in which candidates have accused with the offence and sentenced for 2 or more years are disqualified to contest for election.
(d) With the offence proved by the court of law a person is not eligible to contest election or a period of 6 years.
Providing the above details in the nomination paper enable a voter to elect good and best representatives of their own choice.

Question 11.
Write about the mandatory disclosures of education antecedents of the contestants.
Answer:
The candidate has to file an affidavit to give information relating to his educational qualifications to enable a voter to choose his best choice.
(a) Being representative of the people one has to be educated and actively take part in the proceedings of the legislature, administration and in law making process.
(b) By knowing the educational details of the candidates, voters are able to elect qualified representatives.
(c) It is very essential for all the candidates to have at least minimum qualification to know the pulse of the people.
(d) Only educated reprcsentatice can understand the administration and participate actively.

Question 12.
Write a note on property antecedents of the contestant.
Answer:
Contesting an election is an expensive aspect in the present situation. Election Commission of India made it compulsory for all the candidates to furnish their movable and immovable property details while filing the nomination.
(a) It is clear that declaring the property antecedents, people are able to understand the credibility of the candidates.
(b) By declaring their property details, candidates can seek the vote before the people without any prejudice.
(c) it avoids the candidates who earns the property illegally from contesting the elections.
(d) It.curb the corruption in the administration as the people are watching honest) and sincerity of the representatives during their rule.

Question 13.
Write the development of party system in India since 1885.
Answer:
The political parties in India originated during the British rule and the Indian National Congress was the first party which was founded in 1885 by A.O. Hume. The leaders of this organization mobilized national opinion on an unprecedented scale and ultimately won political independence for the country.

Another political party which was founded during the British rule was the Communist Party of India in 1924. Besides these two parties All India Muslim League was emerged in 1906 and Hindu Mahasabha in 1916 which were communal in their outlook and character. Another political party founded in the pre-independence days was the Congress Socialist Party in 1934 and continued to work with the Congress party up to 1948.

Forward Block and Praja Socialist Part) are emerged in the successive years. In addition to these political parties, a number of state parties also made their appearance in the post-independence period in various states. These include Bharatiya Jan Sangh, Janata Dal. Samajawadi Party, Biju Janatha Dal. DMK. AIADMK. Telugu Desham. National Conference. Rashtriya Janata Dal, Trinmul Congress. Akali Dal, BSP. National Congress Party, JMM, Gorka National Liberation Front, Shiva Sena. etc. India has developed a multi-party system and the number of political parties is certainly much more than found in other democratic countries of the world.

Question 14.
Write a note on the Regional Parties.
Answer:
Regional political party means a party which generally operates within a limited geographical area. Its activities are confined to a single or handful of states. The regional parties represent the interests of particular linguistic, religious, ethnic or cultural groups w hich are concentrated in a particular area. The regional parties differ from the national parties both in terms of their outlook as well as the interests which they attempt to serve.

Their activities are focused on specific issues concerning the region and they operate within a limited area. Some of the main regional parties are Janata Dal(S) in Karnataka, Telugu Desham in Andhra Pradesh. DMK and AIADMK in Tamilnadu, Shivasena in Maharastra, Aakalidal in Punjab, National Conference in Jammu and Kashmir, RJD in Bihar. SJP in Uttarapradesh, BJD in Odisha, AGP in Assam, TRS in Telengana.

Question 15.
Write about the era of coalition Government in India.
Answer:
A coalition government emerges in those countries which have a multi-party system. Where a country has many political parties and in an election no single party has been able to secure majority number of seats in the election, a coalition government is formed. Coalition implies a combination of parties. Thus, two or more political parties, due to lack of sole majority, made the alliance and forms the government on Common Minimum Programme. Coalition government was first formed in 1977 under the banner of Janatha party headed by Morarjee Desai.

The first Prime Minister ofa coalition government. Later on. in 1989. National Front was led by V.P. Singh formed coalition gov ernment. In 1996 United Front led by H.D. Devegowda. in 1999 National Democratic Alliance under the leadership of A.B. Vajapayee. in 2004 United Progressive Alliance led by Manmohan Singh and in 2014 National Democratic Alliance headed by Narendra Modi formed the coalition gov ernment in different stages of political situation.

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2nd PUC Political Science Elections and Party System In India Ten marks questions and answers:

Question 1.
Explain the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. (July 2017) (March 2018)
Answer:
According to Article 324(1) of Indian Constitution, the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India are as follows:-

(a) It revise and prepares the electoral roll periodically.
(b) It hold elections to Parliament. State Assemblies, and offices of the President and Vice President.
(c) It announce the elections and issue the time table.
(d) It conducts the by-election to vacant seats and announce the repoll where the elections are disrupted.
(e) It grants recognition to political parties as National and State level parties and also allots ‘ the symbols to the parties.
(f) It scrutinizes the nomination papers and empovver.to reject the uncompleted nomination papers.
(g) It appoints officers and other stall’ members to conduct election and make necessary arrangements.
(h) It appoints the observers and micro observers to keep constant eye on the electoral process.
(i) It can undertake the counting process and declare the results. It can also withhold the election results on valid grounds.
(j) It can advice the President or the Governor at the time of disqualification of members of the House.
(k) It enforces the code of conduct for the candidates and political parties with relates to the election expenses and submission of accounts after election.
(l) As per the Representation of Peoples’ Act of 1950 and 1951, Election Commission of India conducts the process of election.

Question 2.
Describe the electrol reforms in India (March 2017)
Answer:
Elections in India is huge and complex. The electoral process also elaborate. In the course of the last 50 years the election process has show n a number of shortcomings which have arisen out of the politico-social, economic and cultural conditions prevailing in our country. Caste . and religious factors have become predominant. Vote banks, rigging, booth-capturing, proxy voting etc., have become common. In view of these, several electoral reforms have been taken up in recent years. They may be outlined as follows:-

(a) To provide representation to the country, the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and Assembly elections.

(b) To overcome various problems arising in the election process. Electronic Voting Machines have been introduced.

(c) To discourage candidates who are not serious in contesting in the elections and to avoid multiplicity of such candidates, the deposit amount has been increased.

(d) To deal with proxy voting, identity cards with photographs is being issued to all voters by the Election Commission.

(e) In recognition of the voters right to information, the Election Commission has decided on mandatory disclosure of their antecedents by the candidates.

(f) To curb the role of money in elections and to enable the service minded persons to contest in the elections, Tndraj it Gupta Committee recommended for state funding of elections.

(g) In order to ensure free and fair elections, the candidates should furnish the details about their educational qualifications, movable and immovable property and criminal background.

(h) In order to promote the elections more trustworthy. Election Commission of India has . introduced VVPAT and VSDL! devices along w ith EVMs during pooling.

Question 3.
Explain the mandatory disclosures during elections.
Answer:
Mandatory disclosure of antecedents of the candidates:-
The candidates have to disclose their personal details of criminal, education and property while filing their nominations. This is to facilitate the right candidates to contest the elections.

1. Criminal antecedents: To curb criminalization of politics, it is compulsory for all the candidates to show their criminal details while filing the nominations as per the Supreme Court decisions. Disqualification for criminal offences is provided in Representation of Peoples” Act 1951.

(a) As per the Act a person is disqualified from contesting election only on conviction by the court of law.
(b) Cases filed 6 months before election would lead to disqualification.
(c) Cases in which candidates have accused with the offence and sentenced for 2 or more years are disqualified to contest for election.
(d)  With the offence proved by the court of law a person is not eligible to contest election or a period of 6 years.
Providing the above details in the nomination paper enable a voter to elect good and best representatives of their own choice.

2. Educational antecedents: The candidate has to file an affidavit to give information relating to his educational qualifications to enable a voter to choose his best choice.
(a) Being representative of the people one has to be educated and actively take part in the proceedings of the legislature, administration and in law making process.
(b) By knowing the educational details of the candidates, voters are able to elect qualified representatives.
(c) It is very essential for all the candidates to have at least minimum qualification to know the pulse of the people.
(d) Only educated reprcsentatice can understand the administration and participate actively.

(3) Property antecedents: Contesting an election is an expensive aspect in the present situation. Election Commission of India made it compulsory for all the candidates to furnish their movable and immovable property details while filing the nomination.
(a) It is clear that declaring the property antecedents, people are able to understand the credibility of the candidates.
(b) By declaring their property details, candidates can seek the vote before the people without any prejudice.
(c) it avoids the candidates who earns the property illegally from contesting the elections.
(d) It curb the corruption in the administration as the people are watching honest) and sincerity of the representatives during their rule.

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Question 4.
Explain the recommendations of Indrajith Gupta Committee regarding State funding.
Answer:
An educated person with high caliber and social concern fails to get elected due to lack of money. To encourage competent, capable individuals with honesty and integrity’, certain measures have been taken by’ the concern authority. The state by providing material benefits like supply’of fuel for vehicles, papers for election literature and other purposes checks the candidates from becoming corrupt. With regard to state funding of elections. Indrajit Gupta Committee was formed in 1998. The Committee recommended as follows:-

(a) To Minimize the election expenses of political parties, a part of it to be borne by the State.
(b) State funding should be in the form of kind not in cash.
(c) It recommended separate election fund to be created and the annual contribution of central government is Rs.600 crores and that of all the states should be Rs.600 crores.
(d) State funding to be confined to the recognized parties by the Election Commission.
(e) To avail the state funding benefits the political parties must submit their income tax returns.
(f) Free election telecasting and broad casting to all the political parties on government owned Television. Radio and other private channels.
(g) The details of expenditure should be given to the Election Commission within the specified time.
(h) It recommended for reasonable restrictions writing on wall, display of cutouts, banners, posters and buntings.

Question 5.
Describe the nature of Indian party systerm
Answer:
Political parties play a vital role in a democracy. India has the largest democracy in the world. It has many political parties which operate at various levels viz., local, state and national levels. The nature of Indian party system is as follows:

(a) Extra constitutional growth:- There is no reference in the Constitution of India about how many political parties are to be existed in the country. According to Article 19 of the Constitution, all citizens can have freedom to form associations or unions. Political parties established on the basis of this liberty. Hence political parties have no constitutional base.

(b) Prevalence of multi party system: India is a divergent country with many religions, tribes, languages, culture and traditions. The heterogeneity’ leads to the emergence of many political parties to protect their interests in the stream of the country’.

(c) Split and merger: It is a common phenomenon in the Indian party system. Various reasons contributed for split like ideological differences, egoism, power hunger, etc.

(d) End of single party era: India was under Congress rule till 1977. The happenings between 1975 -1977 forced small parties to unit and fight against Congress and capture power and put an end to single party’ era.

(e) Dissident activities: Meanness of leaders like personal attitudes, favoritism, nepotism lead to dissent activities. Repetition of such happenings instigates leaders to go against the ideology of the party and paves way to political instability.

(f) Defection: Elected members of the Legislature change their parties often for personal benefits or differences of opinion and many more reasons. It ruins the values of democracy and destabilizes the government.

(g) Leader worship: Most of the political parties in India emphasize on the leaders then the ideologies of the parties. The leaders decides the destiny of the political party.

(h) Alliances without principles: Political parties are formed with principles of democracy and secularism but they ignore them for want of pow er and make unholy alliances.

(i) Dominance of regional parties: The presence of regional parties during first general election did not influence the voters hence they were rejected. During 1980’s they emerged very strong and dominated the political scenario.

(j) Religious, lingual and regionalism: The basis of political parties in India is religion, language, regionalism and the like.

(k) Leftist and rightist parties: Party system in India consists of Leftist and Rightist ideologies. Eg. CPI, CPi(M) who have belief in revolutionary ideology and drastic changes in the system. Parties like BJP, Akalidal. Shivasena believe in moderate changes in the system.

(l) The era of coalition: When no single political parts secures absolute majority, various political parties come together and made the alliance and form the coalition government. The era of coalition started during 1977 and still existing.

Question 6.
Explain the functions of political parties (July 2015,2016,2018)
Answer:
Political parties are essential in the democratic system. Without political parties democratic government cannot work successfully. In fact they are indispensable to democracy. Democracy and .political parties are inseparable. Political parties perform very vital functions in the democratic process. They are as follows:

(a) To formulate the party programme: In formulating its programmes or policies, eveiy political party tries to keep in view its own ideology, aims and objectives. It then publishes its manifesto on the eve of the elections. Political parties ensure that all sections of the party throughout their ranks, propagate and support them. It then appeals to as large a number of voters as possible.

(b) To propagate the party programme and educate the people: Political parties impart political education to the people and make them to realize their responsibilities. The ideologies along with the previous achievements are highlighted to attract the voters during the electioneering.

(c) To win elections and capture power: This is their main objective. To achieve this objective all political parties field their candidates for the elections and undertake to support by campaigning. It is this process that almost all the political parties have been consumed by the craze for power.

(d) Formation of government: After the declaration of the results, the party- which secures majority forms the government. The administration is earned on in accordance with the mandatory provisions of the Constitution.

(e) Acts as opposition party: The political party which fails to secure majority in the election act as opposition party. It act as constructive opposition against the bad policies and programs of the government.

(f) Public opinion and policy: As in all democracies. Indian political parties function like brokers of ideas. They play an active role in molding public opinion by making use of the publicity media. They present different policy alternativ es to the problems confronting the nation.

Question 7.
Bring out the main provisions of Anti-defection Act (March 2018, July 2015)
Answer:
The Anti-defection Act 1985, also known as the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted to prevent the problems of defection of Members of Parliament and State Assemblies from one political party to another. The main provisions of the Act are as follows:-

(a) A Member of Parliament or State Legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified if he voluntarily quits his party.

(b) He will be disqualified from his membership if he votes against his party Whip in the session.

(c) A Member of Parliament or State Legislature belonging to any political party shall be disqualified from hi.s membership if he votes in the session without prior permission of his party

(d) A nominated member shall be disqualified from his membership in the Upper House if he joins any political party’ after 6 months from the date on which he assumes his position.

(e) If l/3rd strength of any political party merges with another political party shall be considered as defection.

(f) A person disqualified under this Act shall not be provided any office or profit.

(g) The Anti-defection Law determines the size of the Council of Ministers. The size of the Council of Ministers of Union shall not exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha and similar to that of State Legislative Assembly.

(h) Speaker can initiate action against the members under Anti-defection Law.

(i) The Chairpersons of Legislature are permitted to frame the rules to implement this Law.

(j) An independent member of the house shall be disqualified, if he joins any party after election.

(k) A person shall not be disqualified if his original party merges with another party under this Law.

(l) The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and Deputy’ Chairman of Rajya Sabha. the Presiding officers of State Legislatures shall not be disqualified under Anti defection Law if they quit their original party.

(m) A person who is disqualified under Anti-defection Law, can challenge the orders of the Speaker before the Court.

1st PUC Sociology Question Bank Chapter 7 Social Research

Karnataka 1st PUC Sociology Question Bank Chapter 7 Social Research

You can Download Chapter 7 Social Research Questions and Answers, Notes, 1st PUC Sociology Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

1st PUC Sociology Social Research One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Social Research?
Answer:
According to William P Scott Social research is any research that focuses on the study of human groups or the processes of social interaction.

Question 2.
What is Observation?
Answer:
P. V. Young defines observation as “a systematic and a deliberated study through the eye of occurrences at the time they occur”.

Question 3.
What is a Questionnaire?
Answer:
According to Goode and Hatt “questionnaire as a device for securing answers to question using a form which the respondent fills in himself’.

Question 4.
What is Primary data?
Answer:
Primary data are those which are assembled for the specific purpose of solving a particular research problem.

Question 5.
What is Secondary data?
Answer:
Secondary data are those already recorded foe some other purpose but used in research project.

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Question 6.
Bring out one difference between interview and questionnaire method.
Answer:
Interview it is a direct method of direct collection of data, where as a questionnaire is a tool for data collection

1st PUC Sociology Social Research Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention two difference between primary data and secondary data.
Answer:
The two difference between primary and secondary data.

  • Primary data is original data collected by the researcher from field study
  • The major sources of primary data are Observation, Interview, Questionnaire, and Social Survey

Secondary data.

  • It is collected by the researcher from different documents
  • It includes Personal Documents Public Documents Books, Periodicals’, Abstracts and Indexes

Question 2.
State two types of observations.
Answer:
The two types of observations are:

  • Structured: In this form of interview, there are definite, concrete and predetmined questions are framed.
  • Unstructured : it includes a set of questions which are not structured in advances and which may be adjusted according to need during the question period.

Question 3.
State two types of sources of primary data.
Answer:
The major sources of primary data are Observation, Interview, Questionnaire and Social Survey.

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Question 4.
State two types of sources of Secondary data.
Answer:
The major sources of primary data are Observation, Interview, Questionnaire, Social Survey.

Question 5.
Mention two demerits of observations.
Answer:

  1. There is a danger of losing objectivity because of emotional attachments and over involvement or ego satisfaction.
  2. Some phenomena cannot be observed through participation for instant, an observer cannot become a criminal.

Question 6.
State two merits of questionnaire.
Answer:

  1. It is economical and covers large number of people spread over a large area.
  2. It-is time saving because a large extent of respondents can be reached through mailed questionnaire.

Question 7.
What is meant by objectivity?
Answer:
The Objectivity simple means the ability to see and accept facts as they are might wish them to be objectivity.

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1st PUC Sociology Social Research Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is primary data? Discuss its sources of data.
Answer:
Primary Data is the information related to research collected by the researcher for the first time. This data is drawn from field study or from laboratories for the specific purpose of solving a particular research problem”.

Primary data is original data collected by the researcher from field study. Primary or secondary data are collected through various tools or meAnswer: The major sources of primary data are: Observation., Interview, Questionnaire, Schedule and Social Survey.

Question 2.
Discuss the source of Secondary data.
Answer:
Secondary data is collected by the researcher from different documents. According to Roberta on and Wright, “ Secondary data are those already recorded for some other purpose but used in research project “It includes Personal Documents, Public Documents, Books Periodicals, Abstracts, Bibliographies and Indexes, Office Statistics, Year Book, Encyclopedia, Directories and others.

Question 3.
Discuss the role of interview method in data collection.
Answer:
Interview: The very term implies “Interviewing is an interactional process, it is a mutual view of each other”.

Merits of structured Interview:

  • It provides safe basis for the generalization
  • In this method, interview’s bias can be restricted
  • It is more methodical and easy to administer.

Demerits.

  • The rigid and mechanical process, sometimes defeat the purpose of interview. It lacks the flexible nature and personal touch in interview.
  • In this method, there is a possibility that substances of interview obtain less importance than formal process and set up.

Unstructured (Oral) Interview: It is not rigid type of interview. In this method, there is flexibility in the entire process of interview. The interview has greater freedom to choose the form depending on situations. The flexibility nature of interview allows the interview to ask number, sequence, and method of questions according to requirements of situations.

Merits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview creates a congenial atmosphere for effective communication.
  • In a highly diverse society of India, the formal set up interview imposes serve limitations on interview. Unstructured interview is the only remedy for this problem

Demerits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview provides respondents to answer differently, this is difficult in analysis of data
  • To administer this type of interview, well trained and skilled persons are required
  • The more number of personal bias and prejudices may be the part of this method.

Merits of Interview method

  • It is possible to obtain highly reliable information and in depth knowledge
  • It is possible to obtain information about the past and also about future plans in a detailed manner.
  • There is a high rate of response
  • Interview method can be used with all types of persons.

Demerits of Interview method

  • There is a possibility of misleading information being given by the interview
  • There can be defects due to the interview who may not be the best person to give information
  • There can be defects due to the bias or prejudice of the interview himself. Interview is a difficult skill and needs training
  • It is a costly and time-consuming method.

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Question 4.
Discuss the difference between primary data and secondary data.
Answer:
Primary Data is the information related to research collected by the researcher for the first time. This data is drawn from field study or from laborators for the specific purpose of solving a particular research problem”.

Primary data is original data collected by the researcher from field study. Primary or secondary data are collected through various tools or means. The major sources of primary data are : Observation., Interview, Questionnaire, Schedule and Social Survey

Secondary data is collected by the researcher from different documents. According to Roberta on and Wright, “ Secondary data are those already recorded for some other purpose but used in research project “It includes Personal Documents, Public Documents, Books Periodicals, Abstracts, Bibliographies and Indexes, Office Statistics, Year Book, Encyclopedia, Directories and others.

Question 5.
Define Research. What is social research?
Answer:
Research is a “Systematized investigation to gain a new knowledge about social phenomena and problems we call it social research”
Modern society is dominated by Information and Communication Technology. Recent computers perform multi-dimensional functions. Various soft ware packages provide data on different topics. Use of internet provided world wide data on different subjects. Internet provides more up to data information, very large extent of data which is limitless because traditional print media has limited space in library. Internet access is available for 24 hours a day. research successfully save time, energy and resources due to use of internet.

Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing and Computer Assisted Telephone Interviewing techniques are common in America. It helps the researcher to collect data systematic way and computer easily store, classify and analyses the responses immediately completion of interview.

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Question 6.
Describe the importance of observation method in data collection.
Answer:
The importance of Observation method in data collection are:

  • It is possible to observe the natural behavior of the group because the observer is not stranger.
  • It is possible to gather quantitatively more and quantitatively better information.
  • It is possible to get better insights into the phenomena because the observer is an insider. It is possible to observe secrete behavior.
  • It is possible to retain a high level of objectivity.
  • A non-participant observer is able to collect considerable information because of his open role as an observer and his eagerness to learn
  • It is possible to record behavior as it occurs, without any distortions. This gives highly qualitative data.
  • Observation is a flexible method of data collection
  • It is independent of people’s willingness to report.

Question 7.
Discuss briefly the technique of questionnaire method.
Answer:
Techique include a set of questions which are not structured in advice and which may be adjusted according to need during the question period it is in flexible nature. It is used to collect data pertaining to personal experience opinions, attitudes etc.

Question 8.
Discuss the types of interview.
Answer:
Interview: The very term implies “Interviewing is an interactional process, it is a mutual view of each other”.

Structured Interview : has predetermined questions and standard techniques. The number * of questions is also fixed. In this method of interview, number and nature of questions, order of asking them, wording of questions, recording system and everything in the interview process is standardized.

Merits of structured Interview:

  • It provides safe basis for the generalization
  • In this method, interview’s bias can be restricted
  • It is more methodical and easy to administer

Demerits.

  • The rigid and mechanical process, sometimes defeat the purpose of interview. It lacks the flexible nature and personal touch in interview
  • In this method, there is a possibility that substances of interview obtain less importance . than formal process and set up.

Unstructured (Oral) Interview: It is not rigid type of interview. In this method, there is flexibility in the entire process of interview. The interview has greater freedom to choose the form depending on situations. The flexibility nature of interview allows the interview to ask number, sequence, and method of questions according to requirements of situations.

Merits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview creates a congenial atmosphere for effective communication
  • In a highly diverse society of India, the formal set up interview imposes sei ve limitations on interview. Unstructured interview is the only remedy for this problem

Demerits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview provides respondents to answer differently, this is difficult in analysis of data
  • To administer this type of interview, well trained and skilled persons are required
  • The more number of personal bias and prejudices may be the part of this method.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 9.
Explain the importance of computers and Internet in social research.
Answer:
Modern society is dominated by Information and Communication Technology. Recent computers perform multi-dimensional functions. Various soft ware packages provide data on different topics. Use of internet provided world wide data on different subjects.

Internet provides more up to data information, very large extent of data which is limitless because traditional print media has limited space in library. Internet access is available for 24 hours a day. research successfully save time, energy and resources due to use of internet.

Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing and Computer Assisted Telephone Interviewing techniques are common in America. It helps the researcher to collect data systematic way and computer easily store, classify and analyses the responses immediately completion of interview

Question 10.
Write short notes on the focused interview and repeated interview.
Answer:
This is a differentiated form other types of interview by the following characteristics.

  • It takes place with persons known to have been involved in particular concrete solution.
  • It refers to situations which have been analyzed prior to the interview.
  • It proceeds on the basis of an “interview guide” which outline the major areas of the inquiry.

The Repeated Interview: This type of interview is particularly useful in attempts to trace the specific development of social or psychological process, that is, repeated at some interview to know and to record the progressive reaction or response of the interviewee on the very same matter, say, general elections.

Paul Lazarsfeld and his association made extensive use of this repeated interview technique in their study of how the voter makes up his mind in a presidential campaign, these interviews secured the progressive reaction of the voter and also helped to know about the influence of various factors entering into the choice of a president.

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Question 11.
What is closed form and open end type questionnaire.
Answer:
In closed form questionnaire, a number of alternative answers are provided at the end of each questions and the task is, the informant has to choose one of them, this is also called “poll- type” or “selective-type” of questionnaire for the informant has to select one among the answers supplied by the investigator himself.

In open-end type questions are not followed by any ready-made answers, the informant has to think of the answer himself and he is free to answer as he likes, the open-end responses are free and spontaneous expressions on the part of the informant who is not limited in his replies to a particular question posed to him. this is called “inventive type” for the respondent has to think of or invent the answer himself.

The respondent may be asked to write a descriptive essay and express his view point, describe his relationships, attitudes, indicate his problems, and repost on details and events without restrictions imposed as in the type of closed questions.

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1st PUC Sociology Social Research Ten Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the sources of data.
Answer:
In the process of conducting research, data collection is important stage. In general, collecting information related to the problem under research is called data collection. According to William Scott “information collected from observation or measurement from which attempt is made to develop generation or conclusion is called “Data are divided into two types:

Primary and Secondary Data.
Primary Data is the information related to research collected by the researcher for the first time. This data is drawn from field study or from laboratories for the specific purpose of solving a particular research problem”. Primary data is original data collected by the researcher from field study. Primary or secondary data are collected through various tools or means. The major sources of primary data are : Observation., Interview, Questionnaire, Schedule and Social Survey.

Secondary data is collected by the researcher from different documents. According to Roberta on and Wright, “ Secondary data are those already recorded for some other purpose but used in research project “It includes Personal Documents, Public Documents, Books Periodicals, Abstracts, Bibliographies and Indexes, Office Statistics, Year Book, Encyclopedia, Directories and Others.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of Social Research.
Answer:
Report Writing in final stage in Social Research process. It consists in communicating the finding of the study or investigation to others. There are different types of report. Report to general public is simple clear and interesting. Report meant to organizers, it is detailed. A report meant for scientific community must be technical.

A good report should be clear and accurate. It will not have any confusion. It should explain objectives of the study and comprehensive report must be properly organized with suitable arrangement and systematic presentation. It should be ethically neutral. It should not consist personal bias and prejudices. Report should have suitable writing style and attractive presentation. It should be always prepared according to the objectives of the study.

Report has no standard outline. But is should included a clear statement of the problem, information on finding and conclusions. In the preliminary of the report, there should be a Title page, preface or foreword, acknowledgements, methodology adopted, list Or graphs, illustrations, tables, charts it should have table of contents.

The contents of the report should have an introduction, which explains objectives of the study, statements of the problem and its definition, hypothesis, definitions of concent* review of literature and previous studies, scope, time and place of present study assumptions and limitations. Finally, report should include reference materials also. It includes Bibliography, appendices, glossary of terms and index. Certain format is followed in giving bibliography. Generally author’s name, year of publication, name of the book, referred page numbers, address of publisher is provided in reference. All these aspects of report, explain relevance of the study.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 3.
Discuss the techniques of data collection in social research.
Answer:
The techniques of data collection are: Observation is a regulated perception of facts and circumstances with a definite purpose in view There are two types of observation on the basis of different criteria:

Controlled and Uncontrolled observation: Controlled observation implies the use of various tools and instruments to control one or more variable. It usually takes place in a laboratory. Uncontrolled observation is also called unaided observation because it is made in the natural environment without exercising any controls on the phenomena observed.

Participant and Non-Participant Observation: The Participant observation method focus on observer or researcher participants in the social phenomena under study. Whereas in Non-participant observation or researcher does not participate, is a loof and observes the life and activities of the group in a passive manner.

Merits of participant Observation

  • It is possible to observe the natural behavior of the group because the observer is not stranger.
  • It is possible to gather quantitatively more and quantitatively better information.
  • It is possible to get better insights into the phenomena because the observer is an insider.
  • It is possible to observe secrete behavior.

Demerits.

  • There is a danger of losing objectives because of emotional attachment and over-involment or ego-satisfaction
  • Some phenomena cannot be observed through participation. For instance, an observer cannot become a criminal.

Merits of Non-Participant Observation

  • It is possible to retain a high level of objectivity.
  • A non-participant observer is able to collect considerable information because of his open role as an observer and his eagerness to learn.

Demerits

  • It is not possible to get information on many aspects of life and activities because observation is limited to formal occasions and organizations.
  • It is not possible to gain insights into many aspects of behavior because the observer is an outsider.

Merits and limitation of Observation
Merits

  • It is possible to record behavior as it occurs, without any distortions. This gives highly qualitative data.
  • Observation is a flexible method of data collection
  • It is independent of people’s willingness to report.

Limitations

  • Data collected through observation cannot be quantified
  • There is a danger of bias, especially hidden bias.
  • Observation cannot be used to study private behavior
  • Observation is limited by the duration of the event.

Interview
The very term implies “Interviewing is an interactional process, it is a mutual view of each other”.
Structured Interview: has predetermined questions and standard techniques. The number of questions is also fixed. In this method of interview, number and nature of questions, order of asking them, wording of questions, recording system and everything in the interview process is standardized.

Merits of structured Interview:

  • It provides safe basis for the generalization
  • In this method, interview’s bias can be restricted
  • It is more methodical and easy to administer

Demerits.

  • The rigid and mechanical process, sometimes defeat the purpose of interview. It lacks the flexible nature and personal touch in interview
  • In this method, there is a possibility that substances of interview obtain less importance than formal process and set up.

Unstructured (Oral) Interview: It is not rigid type of interview. In this method, there is flexibility in the entire process of interview. The interview has greater freedom to choose the form depending on situations. The flexibility nature of interview allows the interview to ask number, sequence, and method of questions according to requirements of situations.

Merits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview creates a congenial atmosphere for effective communication .
  • In a highly diverse society of India, the formal set up interview imposes serve limitations on interview. Unstructured interview is the only remedy for this problem

Demerits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview provides respondents to answer differently, this is difficult in analysis of data
  • To administer this type of interview, well trained and skilled persons are required
  • The more number of personal bias and prejudices may be the part of this method.

Merits of Interview method

  • It is possible to obtain highly reliable information and in depth knowledge
  • It is possible to obtain information about the past and also about future plans in a detailed manner.
  • There is a high rate of response
  • Interview method can be used with all types of persons.

Demerits of Interview method

  • There is a possibility of misleading information being given by the interviewee
  • There can be defects due to the interview who may not be the best person to give information
  • There can be defects due to the bias or prejudice of the interview himself. Interview is a difficult skill and needs training
  • It is a costly and time-consuming method.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 4.
Write short note on 1. Observation 2. Social Research 3. Role of computers in Social research.
Answer:
Observation: Observation is a regulated perception of facts and circumstances with a definite purpose in view

There are two types of observation on the basis of different criteria:

Controlled and Uncontrolled observation: Controlled observation implies the use of various tools and instruments to control one or more variable. It usually takes place in a laboratory. Uncontrolled observation is also called unaided observation because it is made in the natural environment without exercising any controls on the phenomena observed.

Participant and Non-Participant Observation: The Participant observation method focus on observer or researcher participants in the social phenomena under study. Whereas in Non-participant observation or researcher does not participate, is a loof and observes the life and activities of the group in a passive manner.

Merits of participant Observation

  • It is possible to observe the natural behavior of the group because the observer is not stranger.
  • It is possible to gather quantitatively more and quantitatively better information.
  • It is possible to get better insights into the phenomena because the observer is an insider.
  • It is possible to observe secrete behavior.

Demerits.

  • There is a danger of losing objectives because of emotional attachment and over-in volment or ego-satisfaction
  • Some phenomena cannot be observed through participation. For instance, an observer cannot become a criminal.

Merits of Non-Participant Observation

  • It is possible to retain a high level of objectivity.
  • A non-participant observer is able to collect considerable information because of his open role as an observer and his eagerness to learn.

Demerits

  • It is not possible to get information on many aspects of life and activities because observation is limited to formal occasions and organizations.
  • It is not possible to gain insights into many aspects of behavior because the observer is an outsider.
    Merits and limitation of Observation

Merits

  • It is possible to record behavior as it occurs, without any distortions. This gives highly qualitative data.
  • Observation is a flexible method of data collection
  • It is independent of people’s willingness to report.

Limitations

  • Data collected through observation cannot be quantified
  • There is a danger of bias, especially hidden bias.
  • Observation cannot be used to study private behavior
  • Observation ig limited by the duration of the event.

Social research:
Report Writing in final stage in Social Research process. It consists in communicating the finding of the study or investigation to others. There are different types of report, report to general public is simple clear and interesting. Report meant to organizers, it is detailed. A report meant for scientific community must be technical.

A good report should be clear and accurate. It will not have any confusion. It should explain objectives of the study and comprehensive report must be properly organized with suitable arrangement and systematic presentation. It should be ethically neutral. It should not consist personal bias and prejudices. Report should have suitable writing style and attractive presentation. It should be always prepared according to the objectives of the study.

Report has no standard outline. But is should included a clear statement of the problem, information on finding and conclusions. In the preliminary of the report, there should be a Title page, preface or foreword, acknowledgements, methodology adopted, list or graphs, illustrations, tables, charts it should have table of contents.

The contents of the report should have an introduction, which explains objectives of the study, statements of the problem and its definition, hypothesis, definitions of concepts, review of literature and previous studies, scope, time and place of present study assumptions and limitations. Finally, report should included reference materials also. It includes Bibliography, appendices, glossary of terms and index. Certain format is followed in giving bibliography.

Generally authors name, year of publication, name of the book, referred page numbers, address of publisher is provided in reference. All these aspects of report, explain relevance of the study.

Role of computers in social research:
Research is a “Systematized investigation to gain a new knowledge about social phenomena and problems we call it social research”.
Modern society is dominated by Information and Communication Technology. Recent computers perform multi-dimensional functions. Various soft ware packages provide data on different topics. Use of internet provided world wide data on different subjects. Internet provides more up to data information, very large extent of data which is limitless because traditional print media has limited space in library. Internet access is available for 24 hours a day. research . successfully save time, energy and resources due to use of internet.

Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing and Computer Assisted Telephone Interviewing techniques are common in America. It helps the researcher to collect data systematic way and computer easily store, classify and analyses the responses immediately completion of interview.

KSEEB Solutions

Question 5.
Describe the merits and demerits of interview.
Answer:
Interview
The very term implies “Interviewing is an interactional process, it is a mutual view of each other”.

Structured Interview : has predetermined questions and standard techniques. The number of questions is also fixed. In this method of interview, number and nature of questions, order of asking them, wording of questions, recording system and everything in the interview process is standardized.

Merits of structured Interview:

  • It provides safe basis for th&generalization
  • In this method, interview’s bias can be restricted
  • It is more methodical and easy to administer

Demerits.

  • The rigid and mechanical process, sometimes defeat the purpose of interview. It lacks the flexible nature and personal touch in interview
  • In this method, there is a possibility that substances of interview obtain less importance than formal process and set up.

Unstructured (Oral) Interview: It is not rigid type of interview. In this method, there is flexibility in the entire process of interview. The interview has greater freedom to choose the form depending on situations. The flexibility nature of interview allows the interview to ask number, sequence, and method of questions according to requirements of situations.

Merits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview creates a congenial atmosphere for effective communication.
  • In a highly diverse society of India, the formal set up interview imposes serve limitations on interview. Unstructured interview is the only remedy for this problem

Demerits of Unstructured Interview

  • The informal nature of interview provides respondents to answer differently, this is difficult in analysis of data
  • To administer this type of interview, well trained and skilled persons are required
  • The more number of personal bias and prejudices may be the part of this method.

Merits of Interview method

  • It is possible to obtain highly reliable information and in depth knowledge
  • It is possible to obtain information about the past and also about future plans in a detailed manner.
  • There is a high rate of response
  • Interview method can be used with all types of persons.

Demerits of Interview method

  • There is a possibility of misleading information being given by the interview
  • There can be defects due to the interview who may not be the best person to give information
  • There can be defects due to the bias or prejudice of the interview himself. Interview is a difficult skill and needs training
  • It is a costly and time-consuming method.

KSEEB Solutions

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