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Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. In the following questions, four choices are given for each question, choose and write the correct answer along with its alphabet: ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 1.
The pair of linear equations 3a + 4b = k, 9a + 12b = 6 have infinitely many solutions when,.
a) K = -2
b) K = 3
c) K = 2
d) K = -3
Answer:
c) K = 2
Solution:

Question 2.
n² – 1 is divisible by 8, if n is
a) Prime numbers
b) Odd integer
c) Even integer
d) Natural number
Answer:
b) Odd integer
Solution:
n² – 1
If n is an odd. integer, 1,3,5,
Ex: 1²-1 = 1- 1= 0 divisible by 8.
3² – 1=9-1=8 divisible by 8.
5² – 1 = 25 – 1 = 24 divisible by 8.

Question 3.
\(\sqrt{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) = , where 0<θ< 90°
a) secθ
b) cosec θ
c) cos θ
d) sin θ
Answer:
a) secθ
Solution:
\(\sqrt{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}=\sqrt{\sec ^{2} \theta}=\sec \theta\)

Question 4.
If Q divides the line A(3, 5) and B (7,9) internally in the ratio 2:3, then the co ordinates of Q are.

Answer:
c) \(\left(\frac{23}{5}, \frac{33}{5}\right)\)
Solution:

Question 5.

If Area of the sector  OPRQ = \(\frac{5}{18}[ /latex] of Area of circle. Then the value of x
a) 25°
b) 50°
c) 75°
d) 100°
Answer:
d) 100°
Solution:

Question 6.
If 1 + 2 + 3 + n terms = 28, then n is equal to
a) 28
b) 7
c) 8
d) 56
Answer:
b) 7
Solution:
[latex]\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}+1)}{2}\)
n(n + 1) = 28 x 2 = 56
n(n + 1) = 7 x 8
∴ n = 7

Question 7.
If E₁E₂ E₃…….E₁₀ are the possible elementary events of a random experiment, then P(E₁) + P(E₂) + P(E₃) + ………P(E₁₀) is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
b) 1

Question 8.
If we express sec A in terms of sin A, then sec A is equal to

Answer:
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} A}}\)
Solution:

II. Answer the following Questions : ( 1 x 8 = 8 )

Question 9.
What is the \(\frac{p}{q}\) form of 43.123456789 ?
Answer:
\(\frac{43123456789}{999999999}\)

Question 10.
Write the quadratic equation formed by the roots √3 + √5 and √3 – √5
Answer:
x² -(α + β)x + αβ = 0
X² – [3 + √5 + 3 – √5]x + (3 + √5)(3 – √5) = 0
x² – [6] x + (9 – 5) = 0
x² – 6 + 4 = 0

Question 11.
Find the value of \(\frac{\sin 26}{\sec 64}+\frac{\cos 26}{\csc 64}\)
Answer:

Question 12.
What is the distance between the points p(cos0, sin0) and Q(sin0, -COS0)?
Answer:

Question 13.
If a number “x” choosen at random from the numbers -2, -1, 0, 1, 2. What is the probability that x² < 3 ?
Answer:
Clearly “x” can take any of the five given values.
∴ n(x) = 5.
If x² < 3, then x can take the values -1, 0, 1.
∴ This even A = ,{-1, 0, 1}
n(A) = 3.
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 14.
What is the Area of a circle whose perimeter is 44 cms.
Answer:
2πr = 44
2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\) x r = 44
r = \(\frac{44 \times 7}{22 \times 2}\)
r = 7
A = πr² = \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 7 x 7 = 154cm²

Question 15.
A toy was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder. If the height of the cylinder is h cm and base radius is r cms, find the total surface area of the toy.
Answer:
Total surface Area of the toy = C.S.A of cylinder + 2 [Surface Area of Hemisphere]
= 2πrh + 2πr²
= 2 πr (h + r)

Question 16.
The circumference of a circle exceeds the diameter by 15cm. Find the raidus of the circle.
Answer:
Circumference = 2r + 15
2πr = 2r + 15
2πr – 2r = 15
2 x \(\frac{22}{7}\)r – 2r = 15
Multiply by 7
2 x 22r – 14r = 105 .
30r = 105
r = 3.5

III. Answer the following : (2 x 8 = 16 )

Question 17.
Prove that √5 + √3 is an irrational number.
Answer:

∴ √3 is rational, is a contradiction
∴ √5 + √3 is irrational.

Question 18.
AX and BY are perpendiculars to segment XY. If AO = 5cm, BO = 7cm and Area of ∆ AOX = 150 cm², find the area of ∆ BOY.
Answer:

In ∆ OYB and ∆ OXA,
We have ∠X = ∠Y
So, by AA – criterion of similarity, we have
∆ YOB ≅ ∆ XOA

OR

In the given figure, BD ⊥ AC. Prove that AB² + CD² = AD² + BC²
Answer:
Soln: In ∆ BDC,
∠ BDC = 90°

BC² = BD² + DC² (By Pythagoras)
In ∆ BDA, ∠ APB = 90°
AB² = AD² + BD² (By Pythagoras)
AB² – BC² = AD² + BD² – BD² – DC²
AB² + CD² = AD² + BC²
Hence proved.

Question 19.
If zeroes of the polynomial p(y) = y³ – 3y²+ y + 1 are a – b, a, a+ b. Find a and b.
Answer:
Sum of the zeroes of p(y) = y³ – 3y²+ y + 1

(a-b)(a)(a + b)= \(\frac{-1}{1}\) = -1
(a² – b²) a = -1
(1 – b²) (1) = -1
– b² = -1
-b² = – 1 – 1
-b2 = -2
b2 = 2
b = ±√2

Question 20.
Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 4 cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6 cm and measure its length.
Answer:

Question 21.
Find the zeroes of the polynomial p(y) = y³ – 5y² – 16y + 80. If zeroes are α, -α and β.
Answer:
Sum of the zeroes

α + (-α) + β = 5
α – α + β = 5
β = 5

(α )(-α )(β) =-80
-α²β = -80
α²β = 80
α²(5) = 80
α = 80/5 = 16
α = √16
= ±4

Question 22.
Two pillars of equal height and on either side of a road, which is 100m wide. The angles of elevation of the top of the pillars are 60 and 30 at a point on the road between the pillars. Find the position of the point between the pillars and height of each pillars.
Answer:

In ∆ PAB,
tab 60 = \(\frac{\mathrm{AP}}{\mathrm{AB}}\)
√3 = h/x
h = √3x
In ∆ BCQ,
tan 30 = \(\frac{\mathrm{CQ}}{\mathrm{BC}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{h}{100-x}\)
h√3 -= 100 – x
(√3x)(√3x) = 100-x
4x = 100
x = 25
∴ h= √3 X 25 = 25√3
= 25 x 1.73 = 43.3

OR

The three metallic spheres of radii are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 are melted to form a single solid sphere of radius 12cm. Find the radius of the three small metallic spheres.
Answer:
Volume of the solid sphere = Sum of the volumes of each sphere
\(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}=\frac{4}{3} \pi\left(r_{1}^{3}+r_{2}^{3}+r_{3}^{3}\right)\)
4 x 12³ = 4[(3x)³ + (4x)³ + (5x)³]
1728 = 27x³ + 64x³ + 125x³ 1728 = 216 x³
x = \(\frac{1728}{216}\)
x³ = 8 x = 3√8 = 2
∴ R₁ = 6, R₂ 8, R₃ = 10

Question 23.
In the given fig. OACB is a quadrant of a circle with centre O and radius 3.5cm. If OD = 2cm, find the area of the shaded region
Answer:

Question 24.
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut of a cube of edge 7cm.
Answer:
Given radius of the base of cone = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
h = height of cone = 7cm
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr²h
Volume = \(\frac{1}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times \frac{7}{2} \times \frac{7}{2} \times 7\)
= \(\frac{22 \times 7 \times 7}{12}\)
= 89.83cm³

IV. Answer the following : ( 3 x 9 = 27 )

Question 25.
The sum of a two digit number and the number obtained by reversing the order of its digits is 165. If the digits differ by 3, find the number.
Answer:
Let the digits at units and tens place of the given number be y and x respectively, then
Given number = 10x + y
Number obtained by reversing the order of the digits = 10y + x
(10x + y) + (10y + x) = 165
10x + y+ 10y + x = 165
(11x+11y=165) = 11 ’
x + y = 15 ……(1)
Digits differ by 3, if x > y
x – y = 3 ……..(2)
Solve (1) and (2)

Consider x + y =15
9 + y = 15
y = 15 – 9
y = 6
∴ The number is 96, if y >x, number is 69.

OR

Ten years ago Sudhir was twelve times as old as his son Raghav and ten years, hence, he will be twice as old as his son will be. Find their present ages.
Answer:
Let the present ages of Sudhir and Raghav be x years and y years respectively. Ten years ago, Father ’s age = (x -10) years Son’s age = (y – 10) years,
x- 10= 12(y – 10)
=> x – 10 = 12y – 120
x – 12y = 120+ 10
x – i2y = – 110
x – 12y + 110 = 0. …….(1)
Ten years later, Father’s age = (x + 10) years
Son’s age = (y + 10)
x + 10 = 2(y + 10)
⇒ x+ 10 = 2y + 20
x – 2y = 20 – 10
x – 2y = 10
x – 2y – 10 = 0 ……(2)
Solve (1) and (2)

y = 12
x – 12y = 110
x – 12(12) = -110
x – 144 = -110
x = -110 + 144 = 34
∴ Present age of Sudhir = 34 years and present age of Raghav = 12 years.

Question 26.
The altitude of a right triangle is 7cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13cm, find the other two sides.
Answer:
Let the base BC be = x cm
Then its height AB = (x – 7) cm
Hypotenuse AC = 13 cm
In ∆ABC, AC² = AB² + BC²
132 = (x – If + (x)²
169 = x² + 49 – 14x + x²
169 = 2x² – 14x + 49
2x² – 14x + 49 – 169 = 0
2x² – 14x-120 = 0
x² – 7x – 60 = 0
x²– 12x + 5x-60 = 0
x(x- 12) + 5(x – 12) = 0
(x-12) (x + 5) = 0
(x – 12) = 0 or x + 5 = 0
x = 12 or x = -5
The base of the triangle = 12 cm Length of the altitude = (12 – 7)cm = 5 cm.

Question 27.
X(2, 5), Y (-1, 2) and Z(5, 8) are the co – ordinates of the vertices of A XYZ. The point A and B lie on XY and XZ respectively such that XA : AY = XB: BZ =1:2. Calculate the co – ordinates of X and Y.
Answer:


B(X₂ y₂)= [3, 6]
∴ Co – ordinates of A = (1,4)
Co – ordinates of B = (3, 6)

OR

Find the Area of the triangle formed by joining the mid points of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are (0, -1) (2, 1) and
Answer:

Co – ordinates of A
\(\frac{0+2}{2}, \frac{-1+1}{2}\)
= [1,0]
Co – ordinates of B
\(\frac{0+0}{2}, \frac{-1+3}{2}\)
= [0,1]
Co – ordinates of B
\(\frac{2+0}{2}, \frac{1+3}{2}\)
= [1,2]
∴ Area of A ABC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) Σ x₁ (y₂ – y₃)

= \(\frac{1}{2}\) [1(1-2) + 0(2 – 0) + 1(0-1)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) [-1 + 0 + 1]
∴ Area of ∆ ABC = 1 sq. unit

Question 28.
Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contacts.
Answer:
Data : AB is the tangent drawn to a circle centered at O
‘C’ is the point of contact.

To prove that :
OC ⊥AB
Construction : Mark D .on AB. Join OD.
Let it cut the circle at E
Proof: OE < OD
OE is the radius of the circle.
OE = OC (radii of the same circle)
⇒ OC < OD
⇒ OC is the shortest distance between centre of the circle and tangent AB
∴ OC ⊥ AB
Hence proved.

Question 29.
A hollow sphere of internal and external radii are 6cm and Scm respectively is melted and recast into small cones of base radius 2cm and height 8cm. Find the number of cones.
Answer:
Inner radius of a hollow sphere (r) = 6cm
and outer radius (R) = 8cms.

Radius of one small cone (r,) 2cm and
heigh (h) = 8 cm.

OR

A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuch to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface area.

Answer:
Let r mm be the radius and h mm be the height of the cylinder.
r = \(\frac{5}{2}\) mm = 2.5mm
h = (14 – 2 x \(\frac{5}{2}\) mm
= (14-5) mm
= 9 mm
The radius of hemisphere = r = \(\frac{5}{2}\) mm
Now, the surface area of the capsule. = Curved surface Area of the cylinder surface Area of two hemispheres.
= 2πrh + 2 x 2 πr²
= 2πr² (h + 2r)

Question 30.
Solve graphically
y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x and 3x + 4y – 20 = 0
y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x

3x + 4y – 20 = 0
3x + 4y = 20
4y = 20 – 3x

Question 31.
The following distribution gives the daily income of 65 workers of a factory. Convert this into less than type cumulative frequency distribution and draw its ogive.

Answer:

Question 32.
The fourth term of an AP is 11, and 8th term exceeds twice the fourth term by 5. Find AP and find the sum of first 100 terms.
Answer:
Given : T₄ = -11 and T₈ = 2T₄ + 5
T₈ = 2(11) + 5
a + 7d = 22 + 5 = 27

d = 4
a + 7d = 27
a + 7(4) = 27
a+ 28 = 27
a = 27-28 = -1
a = -1
A.P = -1,3, 7, …..
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n-1)d] = \(\frac{100}{2}\) [2(-1) + (99)4]
= 50 [-2 + 396]
= 50 [394]
= 19700

Question 33.
A person on tour has ₹ 360 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for 4 days, he has to cut down his daily expenses by ₹ 3. Find the original duration of tour.
Answer:
Let the original duration of the tour be x days.
Total expenditure on four = 360 ₹
Expenditure per day = \(\frac{360}{x}\)
Duration of the extended tour = (x +4) days
∴ Expenditure per day according to new schedule = \(\frac{360}{x+4}\)
It is given that daily expenses are cut down by 3₹
\(\frac{360}{x}-\frac{360}{x+4}\) = 3
360 (x + 4) – 360x = 3(x) (x + 4)
360x + 1440 – 360x = 3x (x + 4)
1440 = 3x²+ 12x
3x² + 12x – 1440 = 0
x² + 4x – 480 = 0
x² + 24x – 20x – 480 = 0
x(x + 24) – 20(x + 24) = 0
(x + 24) (x – 20) = 0
x + 24 = 0 and x – 20 = 0
x = -24 and x = 20
∴ Duration of tour = 20 days.

OR

Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 3\(\frac{1}{13}\) minutes. If one pipe
takes 3 minutes more than the other to fill it, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.
Answer:
Let the faster pipe takes x minutes.
Let the smaller pipe take (x + 3) minutes to fill.
Portion of the cistern filled by the faster 1
pipe in one minute = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
⇒ Portion of the cisterin filled by the faster pipe in \(\frac{40}{13}\) minutes

|||ly portion of the cistern filled by the slower pipe in \(\frac{40}{13}\) minutes.

It is given that the cistern is filled in \(\frac{40}{13}\) min.

[40(x + 3) + 40x] = [(x) (x +3)] 13
40x + 120 + 40x = (x² + 3x) 13
80x + 120= 13x² + 39x
13x² + 39x – 80x – 120 = 0
13x² – 41x-120 = 0
13x² – 65x + 24x – 120 = 0
13x (x – 5) + 24(x – 5) = 0
x – 5 = 0, 13x + 24 = 0
x = 5, 13x = -24, x = \(\frac{-24}{13}\)
Faster pipe fills the cistern in 5 minutes and the slower pipe takes 8 min to fill the cistern.

V. Answer the following : ( 4 x 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
In an AP whose first term is 2, the sum of first five terms is one fourth the sum of the next five terms. Show that T20 = -112. Find S₂₀.
Answer:
a = 2, T₁ + T₂ + T₃ + T₄+ T₅
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) (T₆ + T₇ + T₈ + T₉ + T₁₀)
a + a + d + a + 2d + a + 3d + a + 4d
= \(\frac{1}{4}\)(a + 5d + a + 6d + a + 7d + a + 8d + a + 9d)
5a+ 10d = \(\frac{1}{4}\) (5a + 35d)
5(a + 2d) = \(\frac{1}{4}\) x 5( a + 7d)
a + 2d = \(\frac{1}{4}\) (a + 7d)
4(a+2d) = a+7d
4a + 8d – a – 7d = 0
3a + d = 0
3(2) + d = 0
d = -6
T₂₀ = a + 19d
= 2 +19(-6)
= 2 – 114
T₂₀ = -112
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n-1)d]
S_n = \(\frac{20}{2}\) [2(2) + (20-1)(-6)]
= 10 [4- 114]
= (10) (-110)
S₂₀ = -1100.

OR

A man repays a loan of ₹ 3250 by paying 7 20 in the first month and then increases the payment by ₹ 15 every month. How long will it take to clear his loan?
Answer:
Here, a = 20, c.d = 15, n = ?
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n-1)d]
3250 = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2 x 20 + (n-1)15]
3250 x 2 = n(40 + 15n- 15)
6500 = n (25 +15n)
6500 = 25n + 15n2
(15n² + 25n – 6500 = 0)÷ 5
3n² + 5n – 1300 = 0
3n²-60n + 65n- 1300 = 0
3n(n – 20) + 65 (n – 20) = 0
(n – 20) (3n + 65) = 0
(n – 20) = 0, 3n + 65 = 0
n = 20, 3n = -65
n = \(\frac{-65}{3}\)
∴ Total amount will be paid in 20 months.

Question 35.
Find the mean, median and mode for * the following frequency distribution.

Answer:

Question 36.
P.T \(\frac{\tan \theta}{1-\cot \theta}+\frac{\cot \theta}{1-\tan \theta}\) = 1+ secθ cosecθ
Answer:

Question 37.
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) arc of lengths 8cm and 6cm, then construct another triangle whose sides are 5/3 times the corresponding sides of given triangle.
Answer:

Verify
BC = 8cm
BC’= \(\frac{5}{3} \times 8=\frac{40}{3}\)
AB =6cms
A’B= \(\frac{5}{3} \times 6\)
=10cms.

VI. Answer the following : (5 x 1 = 5 )

Question 38.
State and prove pythagoras theorem.
In a right angled triangle, square on the hypotenuse is equal to sum of A the squares on the other sides.
Answer:

Data : ∆ ABC, ∠B = 90°
T.P.T : AC² = AB² + BC²
Construction : Draw BD ⊥ AC
Proof: In ∆ ABC and ∆ ABD
∠ ABC = ∠ADB = 90 [∵ Data & construction]
∠A = ∠A (∵ common Angle)
∠ACB =∠ ABD [ ∵ Re maining angle]
∴ ∆ ABC and ∆ ABD are equiangular
=> ∆ ABC ~ ∆ABD

AB²= AC x AD ……… (1)
In ∆ABC and ∆ BDC
∠ ABC = ∠ BDC = 90 [∵ Data & construction]
∠C = ∠C (∵ common Angle)
∠BAC =∠ DBC [ ∵ Re maining angle]
∴ ∆ ABC and ∆ DBC are equiangular
∆ABC ~ ∆BDC

AB² + BC² = AC (AD + DC)
AB² + BC² = AC(AC)
AB² + BC²=AC²
AC² = AB²+ BC²

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. In the following questions, four choices are given for each question, choose and write the correct answer along with its alphabet: ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 1.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m – 117, then the value of m is
a) 4
b) 3
c) 11
d) 2
Answer:
Solution:
The H.C.F. of 65 and 117 = 65m- 117
Now 13 = 65m- 117
65m 117+13
65rn = 130
m = 130/65 = 2
∴ The value of m = 2
∴ HCF(65, 117)
= 13

Question 2.
If sinx = sin 60° cos 30° – cos 60 sin 30!l, then the value of x is
a) 0°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°
Answer:
b) 30°
Solution:
Sinx = sin 60°cos30 – cos 60 sin 30

Question 3.
The angle between the radius of a circle and the tangent drawn at the point of contact is
a) 0°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 30°
Answer:
c) 90°

Question 4.
The T.S.A. of a cuboid of dimension, l = 30cm, b = 20cm, c = 10cm, is ______
a) 600cm²
b) 60cm²
c) 6000cm²
d) 2200 cm²
Answer:

Question 5.
Which of the following is a polynomial
a) x² – 5x + 3√x
b) x^1/2 + x^1/2 – x +1
c) \(\sqrt{x}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\)
d) x² – 4x + √2
Answer:
x² – 4x + √2
Solution:
x² – 4x + √2 because variable has no negative or decimal powers.

Question 6.
The value of p if x, 2x + p and 3x + 6 are in A.P.
a) p = 3
b) p = 2
c) p = 1
d) p = 0
Answer:
Solution:
x, 2x + p, 3x + 6 are inAP a, A, b are A.P.

2(2x + p) = 2(2x + 3)
2x + p = 2x + 3
p = 2x + 3 – 2k
P = 3

Question 7.
In triangle PQR, The value of y is
a) 4√3
b) 6√3
c) 5√3
d) √3
Answer:
b) 6√3
Solution:

QS² = PS x SR
QS² = \(\sqrt{9 \times 12}\)
QS = \(\sqrt{9 \times 4 \times 3}\)
QS = 3 x 2√3
QS = 6√3

Question 8.
When 2 unbiased coins are tossed at ‘ a time, the probability of getting 2 heads is _____
a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 1
d) 0
Answer:
a) 1/4
Solution:
S = {(H, H) (H, T) (T, H) (T, T)}
n(s) = 4
An event of getting 2 heads = A={(H, H)}
∴ P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{4}\)

II. Answer the following Questions : ( 1 x 8 = 8 )

Question 9.
If the product of zeros of polynomial f(y) = ay³ – 6y² + 11y – 6 is 4 then find the value of ‘a’.
Answer:
α β γ = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{a}}\)
4 = \(\frac{-(-6)}{a}\)
4a = 6
a = \(\frac{6}{4}\)
a = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 10.
What is the value of C, if ax² + bx + c = 0 has equal roots?
Answer:
If ax² + bx + c = 0 has equal roots then,
b² – 4ac = 0
b² = 4ac
4ac = b²
c = \(\frac{b^{2}}{4 a}\)

Question 11.
Find the second term if sum of the ‘n’ term of an AP is 2n² + 1.
Answer:
Sn = 2n² + 1
S₁ = 2(1)² + l= 2xl + l= 2+ l= 3
∴ S₁ = T₁ = a = 3
S₂ = 2(2)² + 1 =8+ 1 =9
a + T₂ = 9
T₂ = 9 – 3 = 6

Question 12.
State converse of Pythagoras Theorem.
Answer:
“The square on the greatest side of a triangle is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides, then the other two sides contian the right angle”.

Question 13.
What is the form of \(\frac{p}{q}\) (p,q ∈ z q ≠ 0) form of 0.57 ?
Answer:
\(0.5 \overline{7}=\frac{57-5}{90}=\frac{52}{90}=\frac{26}{45}\)

Question 14.
If sinθ = \(\frac{1}{3}\) then find the value of (cot²θ + 2)
Answer:
AC² = AB² + BC²
BC² = AC² – AB²
= 3² – 1²
= 9 – 1 = 8
BC = √8 = 2√2
cotθ = \(\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{1}\) = 2√2
2cot²θ + 2 = 2(2√2)² + 2
= 2 x 8 + 2
= 16 + 2
= 18

Question 15.
In sin(A + B) = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and cos (A – B) = 1, 0< A + B < 90°, A ≥ B
Answer:
sin(A + B) = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = sin60°
A + B = 60° …. (1)
cos (A – B) = 1 = cos0°
A – B = 0 ….(2)
Solve (1) and (2)
A + B = 60
A – B = 0
2A = 60 or A = 30°
A + B = 60
30 + B = 60
B = 60 – 30° = 30°
∴ A = 30°, B = 30°

Question 16.
The surface area of a sphere is same as the C.S.A. of a right circular cylinder whose height and diameter are 4 cm each. Find the radius of the sphere.
Soln:
4πr² = 2πrh
4R² = dh .
4R²= 4 x 4
R² = \(\frac{4 \times 4}{4}\) = 4
R = √4 = 2cm
A = 30°, B = 30°
∴ Radius of the sphere = 2cm.

III. Answer the following : ( 2 x 8 = 16 )

Question 17.
By Euclid’s division lemma, show that thte square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.
Answer:
Let x be any positive integer. Then it is of the form 3q, 3q+1 or 3q + 2.
Now, (3q)² = 9q² = 3(3q²) = 3m where m = 3q²
(3q + 1)² = 9q² + 6q+ 1 = 3(3q² + 2q) + 1
= 3m + 1, where m = 3q² + 2q and (3q+2)² = 9q² + 12q + 4
= 3(3q² + 4q + 1) +1
=3m +1, where m = 3q² + 4q + 1
Hence, it is proved.

Question 18.
Solve : \(\frac{x+y}{x y}\) = 2 and \(\frac{x-y}{x y}\) = 6
Answer:
x + y = 2xy
x – y = 6xy
2x = 8xy
2 = 8y

Question 19.
Solve : y² – (√3 + 1)y + √3 = 0
Answer:
y² – √3y – y + √3 = 0
y(y – √3) – 1(y – √3) = 0
(y – √3)(y – 1) = 0
y – √3 = 0, y – 1 = 0
y = √3 and y = 1

Question 20.
Show that the points (3, 2) (-2, -3) and (2, 3) are collinear Or non – collinear.
Answer:
Let A= (3, 2) B = (-2, -3) C = (2, 3)

AC ≠ AB + BC
∴ They are non – collinear.

Question 21.
In the given fig ∆DGH ~ ∆DEF, DH = 8cm, DF = 12cm, DG = (3x – l)cm and DE = (4x +. 2)cm, Find the lengths of DG and DE.
Answer:
∆DGH ~ ∆DEF
\(\frac{\mathrm{DG}}{\mathrm{DE}}=\frac{\mathrm{DH}}{\mathrm{DF}}\)
\(\frac{3 x-1}{4 x+2}=\frac{8}{12}\)

12 (3x – 1) = 8(4x + 2)
36x – 12 = 32x + 16
36x – 32x = 16 + 12
4x = 28
x = 28/4
x = 7
∴ DG = 3x – 1 = 3 x 7 – 1 = 21 – 1 = 20
DE = 4x + 2 = 4 x 7 + 2 = 28 + 2 = 30

OR

D is a point on the side BC of A ABC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC. Prove that
\(\frac{\mathbf{C A}}{\mathbf{C D}}=\frac{\mathbf{C B}}{\mathbf{C A}}\)
Answer:
In ∆ ABC and ∆ DAC,
∠ADC = ∠BAC and
∠C = ∠C
∆ABC ~ ∆DAC

Question 22.
A card is drawn at random from a box containing 21 cards numbered 1 to 21. Find the probability that the card drawn is
a) Prime number b) Divisible by 3.
Answer:
n(s) = 21
A= {2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19}
n(A) = 8
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{8}{21}\)

b) n(S) = 21
B= {3,6, 9,12,15,18}
n(B) = 6
∴ P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{6}{21}=\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 23.
Draw a circle of radius 3cms. Construct a pair of tangents to it, from a point 5cm away from the circle.
Answer:
r = 3cm d = 3 + 5 = 8cm

Question 24.
Express sinA and sec A in terms of cot A.
Answer:
W.K.T cosec²A = 1 + cot²A

OR

If tanθ + sinθ = m and tan θ – sin θ= n, S.T m² – n² = 4\(\sqrt{\mathbf{m} \mathbf{n}}\)
Answer:
L.H.S = m² – n² = (m +n) (m – n)
= {(tan θ + sin θ ) + (tan θ – sin θ )x(tan θ +sin θ) – (tan θ – sin θ)}
= {(2tanθ) x (2sinθ) = 4tanθsinθ

= 4\(\sqrt{\mathbf{m} \mathbf{n}}\)
= RHS.

IV. Answer the following : ( 3 x 9 = 27 )

Question 25.
The sum of the numerator and denominator of a fraction is 24. If 4 is subtracted from the numerator and 5 from its denominator, then it reduces to 1/4. Find the fraction.
Answer:
Let the fraction be \(\frac{\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{y}}\)
sum of its numerator and denominator = 24.
x + y = 24 ……..(1)
If 4 is subtracted from the numerator and
5 from its denominator we get = 1/4
⇒ \(\frac{x-4}{y-5}=\frac{1}{4}\)
4(x – 4) = 1(y – 5)
4x – 16 = y – 5
4x – y = -5 + 16
4x – y = 11 ……..(2)
From (1) and (2)

Consider,
x + y = 24
7 + y = 24
y = 24 – 7
y = 17
∴ The fraction is \(\frac{x}{y}=\frac{7}{17}\)

OR

Two women and five men can together finish an embroidary work in 4 days. While three women and 6 men can finish in 3 days. Find the time taken by one women alone and also that taken by one man alone.
Answer:
Let 1 woman can finish the embroidary in x days and 1 man can finish the embroidary in y days.
1 woman’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
1 man’s 1 day’s work = \(\frac{1}{y}\)

Let \(\frac{1}{x}\) = u, \(\frac{1}{y}\) = v
2u + 5v = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
3u + 6v = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
solve (1) and (2)
(8u + 20v = 1) x 9
(9u+ 18v= 1) x 8

v = \(\frac{1}{36}\)
Put v = \(\frac{1}{36}\)…….(1)
2u + 5v = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
2u + 5\(\frac{1}{36}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Thus, 1 woman alone can finish the embroidery in 18 days and 1 man alone can finish it in 36 days.

Question 26.
If two zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = x⁴ – 6x³ – 26x² + 138x – 35 are 2 – √3 and 2 + √3. Find the other two zeroes.
Answer:
The two zeroes of p(x) are,
(2 – √3) and (2 + √3)
⇒ [x – (2 – √3] and [x – [2 + √3] are the factors p(x).
⇒ [ x – 2 + √3] [x – 2 – √3]
(x – 2)² – (√3)²
x² – 4x + 4 – 3
⇒ x² – 4x + 1 is a factor of p(x)
Divide p(x) by x² – 4x + 1 to get quotient

Consider the quotient, x² – 2x – 35 = 0
x² – 7x + 5x – 35 = 0
x(x – 7) + 5(x – 7) = 0
(x – 7) (x + 5) = 0
x-7 = 0 orx + 5 = 0
x = 7 or x = -5
∴ The other two zeroes are 7, -5.

Question 27.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18. when 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Answer:
Let the two digits be x and y.
⇒ The two digit number is = 10x + y
The product of three digits = xy = 18
When 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places.
10x + y – 63 = 10y + x
10x – x – 10y + y = 63
9x – 9y = 63
9(x – y) = 63
x – y = 63/9 = 7
x – y = 7
x = 7 + y
Consider xy = 18 and substitute x = (y + 7) in it.
y(y + 7) = is . .
y² + 7y – 18 = 0
y² + 9y – 2y – 18 = 0
y (y + 9) – 2(y + 9) = 0 –
(y + 9) (y – 2) = 0 .
y + 9 = 0, y -2 = 0
y = -9 or y = 2
xy= 18
x(2) = 18
x = 18/2 = 9
x = 2
But negative digit is not considered.
∴ The two digit number is
= 10x + y
= 10(9) + 2 = 92

OR

A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km / hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
Answer:
Let the usual speed of the plane be x km / hr. Time taken to cover 1500 km with the usual speed.
\(\frac{1500}{x}\) hrs
Time taken to cover 1500 km with the speed of (x + 250) km / hr = \(\frac{1500}{x+250}\)

2(1500 x 250) = x2 + 250x
x² + 250x-750000 = 0
x² + 1000x – 750x – 750000 = 0
x(x + 1000) – 750(x + 1000) = 0
(x+ 1000)(x-750) = 0
x + 1000 = 0 or x – 750 = 0
x = -1000 or x= 750 ,
x = 750
Hence, the usual speed of the plane = 750 km/hr.

Question 28.
If the co – ordinates of the mid points of ∆ ABC are D(1, 2) E(0, -1) and (2, -1). Find the respective co – ordinates of ∆ ABC.
Answer:

D is the midpoint of BC.

x₁ + x₂ = 4 and y₁ + y₂ = -2 ………(1)
E is the mid point of BC

x₂ + x₃ = 0 and y₂ + y₃ = -2 …….(2)
F is the mid point of BC

x₁ + x₃ = 4 and y₂ + y₃ = -2 ….(3)
Solve (1) and (3)

x₂ = 0
x₂ = 0
0 + x₃ = 0
x₃ = 0
x₁ + x₃ = 4
x₁ + 0 = 4
x₁ = 4 – 0 = 4
x₁ = 4

y₂ = -i
y₂ + y₃ = -2
-1 + y₃ = -2
y₃ = -2 +1
y₃ = -1
y₁ + y₃ = -2
y₁ + (-1) = -2
y₁ -1 = -2
y₁ = -2 + 1 = -1
y₁ = -1
A(x₁,y₁) = A(4,-1)
B (x₂ y₂) = B(0, -1)
C(x₃, y₃) = C(0,-1)

OR

Find the length of the median through the vertex A(5,1) drawn to the triangle ABC where other two vertices are B(1, 5) andiC(-3, -1)
Answer:

Question 29.
Prove that the tangents drawn from an external point are equal.
Answer:

Data : ‘O is the centre of the circle PA and PB are the two tangents drawn from an external point P. OA and OB are radii of the circle.
To prove that : ∠APB + ∠AOB = 180°
∠OAP + ∠OBP = 90°
(∵ Angle between the radius and tangent at the point of contact is 90°)
OP = OP (Common side)
OA = OB (Radii of the same circle)
According to RHS postulate
∆APO = ∆BPO
∠ OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
∠OAP + ∠OBP = 90° +90° =180°
⇒ Opposite angles of OAPB quadrilateral are supplementary.
OAPB is a cyclic quadrilateral
⇒ ∠ APB + ∠ AOB = 180°

Question 30.
If a chord of circle of radius 10cm subtend an angle of 60° at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the corresponding segment of the circle.
(Take π =3.14, √3 = 1.7)
Answer:
O is the centre of the circle having radius 10 cm.
∠ AOB = 60° is angle subtended at the centre O of the circle by a chord AB.
Draw BL ⊥ OA
In right angled ∆ OLB,


Area of segment ∆ APB
= The area of sector OAPB – Area of ∆ OAB

OR

Find the area of the shaded region where PQRS is a square of side lOcms and semicircles are drawn with each side of square as diameter.
Answer:
The four shaded regions are marked as I, II, III, IV.
All the four regions have equal areas due to § symmetry.
Area of I + Area of III
= Area of square ABCD – Sum of the areas of two semicircles of each of radius 5cm.

{10 x 10 – 2 x \(\frac{1}{2}\) π x 5²}cm²
= {100 – 25 x 3.14} cm²
= {100 – 78.5} cm²
= 21.5 cm²
Similarly Area of II + Area of IV = 21.5 cm2. Total Area of shaded region = 21.5 + 21.5
= 43 cm²

Question 31.
The following table gives the production yield per hectare of paddy of 50 farms of a village.

Answer:

Question 32.
Find the mean of the following frequency distribution.

Answer:

A = 50, h = 20, N = 100 and Σ f_iu_i = 15
Mean = A + h\(\left\{\frac{1}{\mathrm{N}} \sum \mathrm{f}_{i} \mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{i}}\right\}\)
Mean = 50 + 20 x \(\frac{15}{100}\)
Mean = 50 + 3 = 53

Question 33.
Construct a triangle of sides 4cm, 5cm and 6cm and then a triangle similar to it whose Sides are 2/3 of the corresponding sides of it.
Answer:

V. Answer the following : ( 4 x 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
Solve the pair of equations graphically.
4x – 3y + 4 = 0
4x + 3y – 20 = 0
Answer:
4x – 3y + 4 = 0 ….. (1)
4x + 4 = 3y
y = \(\frac{4 x+4}{3}\)

4x + 3y – 20 = 0
3y = -4x + 20
y = \(\frac{-4 x+20}{3}\)

Question 35.
How many terms of the series 93 + 90 + 87 + ……….. amounts to 975. Find also the last term.
Answer:
93 + 90 + 87 + …………
a = 93, d = 90 – 93 = -3, S_n = 975, n = ?,
T = ?
S = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
975 = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2(93) + (n-1)(-3)]
975 x 2 = n[186 – 3n + 3]
1950 = n [189 – 3n]
1950 = n[189 – 3n]
1950 = 189n – 3n2
(3n²-189n+ 1950-0) H-3
n² – 63n + 650 = 0
n² – 50n-13n +650 = 0
n(n – 50) – 13(n – 50) = 0
(n – 50) (n -13) = 0
n – 50 = 0 or n – 13 = 0
n= 50 or n= 13
When n = 50, the last term
T_n = a + (n – 1)d
= 93 + (49) (-3)
= 93 – 147
T₅₀ =-54
When n = 13, the last term
T_n = a + (n – 1)d ”
=93 + (13-1) (-3)
= 93 – 36
T₁₃ = 57

OR

If m times the mth term of an A.P is equal to n times its n,h term, show that (m + n)th term is zero.
Soln: Let T₁ = a and c.d = d
Given : m times m,h term = n times nthterm
=> mT_m = nT_n
m[a + (m – 1)d] = n[a + (n – 1)d]
m[a +(m – l)d] – n[a+(n -l)d] = 0
m[a + md – d] – n[a + nd – d] = 0
ma + m²d – md – na – n²d + nd = 0
a(m – n) + d(m – n) (m + n) – d(m – n) = 0
(m – n) {a + d(m +n) – d} = 0 . (m – n) {a + (m + n – l)d} = 0
m-n = 0, a + (m + n-l)d = 0
m= n T_m+n , = 0
But m ≠ n

Question 36.
A tower is 50m high. Its shadow is x mtrs shorter when the suns altitude is 45° than when it is 30°. Find the value of x.
Answer:

Let PQ be the tower and let PA and PB be its shadows when the altitudes of the sum are 45° and 30° respectively.
∠ PAQ = 45°, ∠ PBQ = 30°
∠ BPQ = 90° and PQ = 50m ,
Let AB = x metres
From right angled ∆ APQ, we have
\(\frac{\mathrm{AP}}{PQ}\) = cot 45°=1
\(\frac{\mathrm{AP}}{50}\) = 1 => AP = 50m
From right angled ∆ BPQ,
\(\frac{\mathrm{BP}}{\mathrm{PQ}}\) = cot30° = √3
⇒ \(\frac{x+50}{50}\) = √3
x = 50(√3 – 1)m
= 50 (1.73 – l)m
= 50 x 0.732
= 36.6 m

Question 37.
Prove that “In a right angled triangle, square on the hypotenuse is equal to sum of the squares on the other sides.”
Answer:

Verify
BC = 8cm
BC’= \(\frac{5}{3} \times 8=\frac{40}{3}\)
AB =6cms
A’B= \(\frac{5}{3} \times 6\)
=10cms.

VI. Answer the following : ( 5 x 1 = 5 )

Question 38.
The height of cone is 20m. A small cone is cut off from it at its top by the plane parallel to the base. If the volume of small cone 1/1000 th of the volume of given cone, at what height above the base the section is made.
Answer:
In A OPB and A OQC A OPB ~aOQC OP _ PB OQ ~ QC

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 5 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet in your answer booklet. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Who among the following was connected with ‘Blue water policy’
A. De Almedia
B. Albuqueraque
C. Dupleix
D. Robert Clive
Answer:
A. De Almedia

Question 2.
The ‘Poona Pact’ awarded
A. Seperate constituencies for the untouchables.
B. Implementation of ‘Communal Award’
C. Reservation for Untouchables amons seneral constituencies.
D. Right to vote for untouchables.
Answer:
C. Reservation for Untouchables amons seneral constituencies.

Question 3.
India is trying to achieve member status in which organ of the UNO
A. International Labour Organisation
B. United Nations Human Rights council
C. Trusteeship Council
D. Security Council
Answer:
D. Security Council

Question 4.
Empowerment of rural women is done through
A. Panchayat Raj
B. Grama Sabha
C. Poverty Alleviation schemes
D. Self-help groups
Answer:
D. Self-help groups

Question 5.
Female foeticide is a form of
A. Sexual offence
B. Gender discrimination
C. Birth control
D. Social Problem
Answer:
B. Gender discrimination

Question 6.
The important factor for the location of an industry is
A. Availability of raw Material
B. Availability of power resource
C. Availability of water resource
D. All of the above
Answer:
D. All of the above

Question 7.
The availability of all goods and services which are used by individuals of a country is
A. Economic Development
B. Economic Welfare
C. Economic Growth
D. Economic Equality
Answer:
B. Economic Welfare

Question 8.
Banking transactions in India are controlled by
A. State Bank of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Canara Bank
D. Vijaya Bank
Answer:
B. Reserve Bank of India

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 9.
What did Gandhi believe would drive out the British from India?
Answer:
Gandhi believed that the British would withdraw from India if the Hindu and Muslims fight united.

Question 10.
Who is regarded as the father of Modern Education in India?
Answer:
Warren Hastings.

Question 11.
Why is Communalism a threat to India?
Answer:
Communalism creates social differences, mutual suspicion and fear in the society and integrity and unity of a nation.

Question 12.
Though women and men engage in similar work, women are paid less. Such discrimination is known as?
Answer:
Gender discrimination or Gender inequality.

Question 13.
The distribution of population of India is uneven give reasons?
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is uneven because of varied geographical and cultural factors.

Question 14.
Mention one factor affecting the localization of Industries?
Answer:
Supply of Raw Material.

Question 15.
The total value of all goods and services produced in a country during one year is known as?
Answer:
National Income.

Question 16.
What is meant by ‘Plastic Money’?
Answer:
Credit and debit cards issued by banks.

III. Answer the following questions in three to four sentences each : (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 17.
What was the cause and results of Carnatic war-III?
Answer:
The Third Carnatic War was fought between the English and the French between 1756 and 1763.
Causes :

• Comte De Lally of the French attempted to besiege Wandiwash in 1760.
• The English army under Sir Eyrecoote defeated and imprisoned Bussi.
• Comte De Lally escaped and hid in Pondicherry.
• Eyrecoote attacked Pondicherry and Lally had to surrender unconditionally in 1761.

Results :

• French had to lose all their bases in India, due to Carnatic wars.
• Pondicherry was returned to the French, according to the ‘Treaty of Paris’ in 1763.
• French lost importance in India.
• The English reigned supreme in Southen India, after defeating all their rivals.

Question 18.
What were the administrative and military reasons that led to the mutiny of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative Reasons :

• Implementing civil and criminal laws was partial
• English became the language of the court.
• English judges were partial to Europeans.
• Indians did not like new laws.

Military Reasons

• Pathetic situation of Indian soldiers in British army.
• Indian soldiers were payed less then British soldiers.
• No promotion prospects.
• Indian soldiers were pressurised to work over-seas.
• It hurt the religious sentiments of Indian soldiers.

Question 19.
What are the basic aspects of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Panchasheela Principles
• Non – Aligned Movement.
• Anti – Imperialism
• Anti- Apartheid policy

OR

What are the achievement of UNO

• Peace keeping functions Suez Canal, Iran, Indonesia, Kashmir, Palastine, Korea.
• Economic and Financial: GATT, Establishment of World Bank, IMF
• Social Achivements: World Health Organisations, UNESCO, UNICEF, World Refugee Council.

Question 20.
What are the types of Gender Discrimination according to Amratya Sen.
Answer:

• Inequality in birthrate.
• Inequality in ownership
• Inequality in Infrastructure
• Inequality in family
• Inequality in Opportunities

OR

Child Marriage is a bane of Indian Society. Why?
Answer:

• Patriarchal values
• Gender discrimination
• Lack of girl education.
• Poor implementation of laws

Question 21.
How does Floriculture help economic development of India?
Answer:

• Floriculture plays a significant role in Indian Agriculture.
• It has a great potential of generating income.
• It provides employment opportunities for farmers and women
• Adds to export of India.

Question 22.
Why is there a need for non – conventional energy resources.
Answer:

• They are renewable, pollution free, eco-friendly.
• Found in abundance.
• Can be conveniently supplied to urban and rural areas.
• Capable of meeting power requirements in India.
• Will augment energy crisis.

Question 23.
India’s Human Development Index is very low (0.554) Explain.
OR
India rank’s 136 out of 186 countries in HDI (Human Development Index) explain.
Answer:
In the year 2012 HDI was 0.554. India ranked 136 among 166 countries.

• Low life expectancy (65.8 years)
• Low per Capita Income ($3203)
• Low average years of schooting (4.4 years)

Question 24.
Explain the importance of an Entrepreneur.
Answer:

• Entrepreneurs activate and stimulate economics of a country.
• Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising savings of public,
• Entrepreneurs create and innovate new products.
• They strive had to satisfy needs of the people.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 25.
What were the causes and result of First – Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
Causes :

• The British, Marathas and Nizam did not tolerate Hyder Ali’s rise to power.
• Hyder Ali cunningly broke the tri-party alliance of British, Nizam and Marathas.
• Hyder Ali attacked Arcot in 1767 along with the Nizam’s army.

Results :

• Hyder Ali captured Madras in 1769.
• The British signed ‘Treaty of Madras’ (1769)
• According to the Treaty, British had to help Hyder Ali when attacked by neighbouring kings.

OR

What are the important features of the India Government Act of – 1858.
Answer:

• The license of East India Company was canceled and India was brought under the direct administration of the Queen.
• The post of Governor General was changed into ‘Viceroy’. Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India.
• A new post called ‘Secretary of State for India’ was created in the British government. The secretary was part of British cabinet and was responsible for the administration of India.
• A Council of India was created in order to assist the secretary in the administration. The council had fifteen members.

Question 26.
The Revolt of 1857 was an extremely important event in India History. Substantiate.
Answer:

• It was an expression of the accumulated grievances against the company administration.
• It was an ultimate expression Indian’s dislike of British Rule.
• The administration passed into the hands of the crown by the Government of India Act 1858.
• Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn.
• End of Mughal and Peshwa rule.

Question 27.
The Prarthana Samaj was doing religious as well as social reforms Justify.
Answer:

• Dr. Athma Ram Panduranga started Prarthana Samaj in 1867.
• It aimed to find solutions to problems faced by woman and lower caste people.
• It argued that reinterpretation of Hinduism was needed.
• It started programmes to educate women.
• It rehabilitated poor people.
• It fought against child marriage and discrimination of widows.
• It encouraged widow remarriage.

Question 28.
Discuss the relevance fo India’s Non- aligned policy.
Answer:

• India followed non – aligned policy with both USA and USSR.
• It commanded the faith of both the power block.
• It secured financial assistance from USA.
• It secured military aid from USSR.
• It dealt every international event independently.
• India’s non-aligned policy guided the wars of 1965 and 1971 with Pakistan.

Question 29.
What are the reasons and effects of child trafficking.
Answer:
Reasons :

• Child labour, Child marriage, School dropout, poverty, negligent family, bonded labour.
• Migrations exposure to social media, social inequalities, gender discrimination.
• Lack of skills, Poverty, illiteracy etc.

Effects :

• Physical, Psychological and Social exploitation.
• Children infected with STD’s / HIV/AIDS.
• Pregnancy, abortion deaths, murders, drug addictions.

Question 30.
What are the factors of the location of Iron and steel industries in India? Factors of the location of Iron and Steel
industries in India.
Answer:

• Supply of iron ore.
• Supply of coking coal and hydel power.
• Railway and port facilities for internal and external, trade.
• Plenty of water supply.
• Cheap Labour.
• Capital and local market.

OR

What are the causes of population growth in India?
Answer:
Causes of Population Growth :

• High birth rate due to early marriage, religious attitudes, polygamy, poverty, illiteracy, tropical climate.
• Low death rate due to improved medical facilities, control of epidemics lower infant mortality, education.

Question 31.
Multipurpose river valley projects have multiple benefits. Justify.
Answer:

• They provide water for irrigation.
• They control floods.
• Generate hydro-electricity.
• Prevent soil-erosion.
• Help to develop inland waterways and fishing.
• Provide recreation facilities.
• Provide water for domestic use and industries.
• To reclaim land for agriculture.
• Afforestation.

Question 32.
Explain the evolution of Paper money and the advantages of Banking money.
The metallic coins were unsafe to carry from one place to another. Therefore, traders began to carry the written documents issued by well known financiers as evidence of the quantity of money at their command. The written documents were not actual money, but were accepted and exchanged for money.

When such documents were issued by governments, they were called as ‘promissory notes’ or currency. Later on the central banks established by the governments started printing notes that had the guarantee of the government. This paper money became legal tender that is the legally acceptable money.

No individual can refuse the legal tender in that respective country. The legal tender is called as Rupee in India; Dollar in the USA; Pound in England; Euro in Europe; Yen in Japan; Yuan in China, etc.

Advantages of Banking money
As trade and commerce flourished bankers started issuing instruments for still easy transaction. Cheques, drafts, deposit (Credit) receipts etc., thus, came to be used as money. These help inn transactions as well as transfer of money between persons and places.

OR

What is ‘Public expenditure’ and ‘Public revenue’
Answer:
The expenditure incurred by public authorities like central, state and local governments to satisfy the collective social wants of the people is known as public expenditure. It is incurred on various activities for the welfare of people and also for the economic development, especially in developing countries.

‘Public Revenue:
‘Public Revenue’ is the income mobilized by the Government for purposes of financing Government activities.

Question 33.
“The number of saving bank account holders is increasing Give reasons.
Answer:

• Saving accounts encourages the habit of saving among the people who have an income
• Banks provide many facilities and services for saving account holders such as Electronic fund transfer, Gold Loans, etc.
• The money is safe in a bank account and prevents unnecessary expenses.
• If money is needed urgently, it can be withdrawn at a convenient ATM at their own convenient time.

OR

What are the vital characteristics required to be an entrepreneur.
Answer:
The characteristics of an Entrepreneur are :

• Creativity
• Dynamism
• Team building
• Problem solving
• Risk taking
• Commitment

V. Answer the following questions in Six sentences each : (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 34.
Describe Gandhiji’s early years in South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhiji went to Natal in South Africa to represent Dada Abdulla and Company in 1893.

Though Gandhi intended to be at Natal only three months, he ended up living in South Africa for twenty long years. He opposed the Apartheid policy that discriminated between dark skinned and pale skinned people.

He invested a new tool of protest called ‘Satyagraha’ and formulated its dos and don ts. Many South Africans take pride in declaring that “You sent us unformed Gandhi and We sent back the complete of Gandhi”.

Gandhi conceived the protest based on Sathyagraha and Non-Violence for the first time, He founded Natal Indian Congress. Gandhi published periodical ‘Indian Opinion’ for the first time to express his views and formulated the opinion of people in order to intensify the struggle further he started ‘Passive Resistance Organization’.

He started ‘Tolstoy Farm’ and Phoenix Farm’ to train the people in Sathyagraha and non-violent .peace struggles. Many people like Hermann Kallenbach, his wife Kasturba, Children lent their helping hand to Gandhiji. Finally, feeling pressured by the agitations led by Gandhiji, the government of South Africa, withdrew all restrictions and prohibitions against Indians and Black people.

Once, Gandhiji was traveling from Pretoria and Durban in first class railway compartment. He was thrown out of the compartment by a white officer. This made him to realize the hardships faced by Indians in the various places of South.

Africa. He himself has recorded that there were more hash discriminations in South Africa than in England. After leading a long struggle in South Africa, Gandhiji arrived back to India in 1915.

Question 35.
The service of B.R. Ambedkar in drafting the Indian Constitution is indispensable justify?
Answer:

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the ‘Drafting Committee’
• He advocated equality in the constitution.
• He provided legal guarantees against untouchability in the constitution.
• The practice of untouchability is now crime because of Dr. Ambedkar’s input to the constitution.
• Ambedkar was instrumental in bringing modernity, rationality and retaining the Indian essence is the Indian constitution.

OR

Explain the major achievements of Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
As the Prime Minister of India Pandit Nehru can be seen as the architect of Industrialization and modern India. Nehru became instrumental in the Integration of India which was achieved through the Home Minister of his cabinet, Vallabhabai Patel, the Tr6n Man of India’ who was successful in bringing all the princely states of India together.

He also laid foundation for the diverse culture of India by implementing ‘language based reorganization of states’ policy. He had firmly believed that ‘only complete industrialization can bring development’.

He sought to develop India through ‘Five Year Plans’. He sought to develop infrastructure and heavy industries through these five year plans. With the aim of mastering atomic energy, he laid the foundation for that under the leadership of H.J. Baba. On the external affairs front, India wanted to stay away from both the powerful blocs of cold war period and advocated Non Aligned Movement. He was instrumental in staying away from power politics by adhering to Panchasheela Principles. He died in 1964.

Question 36.
How did USA gain upperhand in the competition of stockpiling weapons?
Answer:
The Second World War caused utmost misery and death in the human history. It also changed the social political and economic changes m the world. In the place of League of Nations, United Nations Organization came into existence. The winning countries of the Second World War; England, China, USA, USSR and France became the permanent members of the UN Security Council. USSR and USA became powerful among rival countries.

This led to the Cold War. The colonies of Asia and Africa were able to achieve their independence. England, France and other European countries lost their most of colonies. The Indian Independence can be understood from this angle also. Since, USA used Nuclear Weapon in Japan, Nuclear Arm race started between the powerful countries.

Question 37.
Irrigation is very essential in India. Why?
Answer:
India is an agricultural country. Therefore it needs a regular and sufficient supply of water. Agriculture in India depends mainly on monsoon rainfall. It is seasonal, uncertain and unevenly distributed.

There are certain crops with require a larger and regular water supply, such as Rice, Sugarcane etc. Besides to increase the yield and production of crops requires regular supply of water. This can be provided only by irrigation which is very essential in India.

VI. 38. Draw outline map of India and mark the given by naming them (1 + 4 = 5)

A] 82 1/2° E Longitude
B] Kemmangundi
C] Mumbai High
D] Eastern Ghats
Answer:

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Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet m your answer, booklet. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
The Third Carnatic War ended with the
A. Treaty of Pondicherry
B. Treaty of Madras
C. Treaty of Baris
D. Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle
Answer:
C. Treaty of Baris

Question 2.
Gorbachev’s reforms of Perestroika and Glasnost resulted in
A. An era of world peace and soviet prosperity.
B. Conditions that helped lend to the break up of Soviet Union.
C. A successful transition to a command economy in Russia
D. Censorship of the news media in Russia.
Answer:
B. Conditions that helped lend to the break up of Soviet Union.

Question 3.
The administration of UNO and institutional functions is taken care by
A. General Assembly
B. Security council
C. Secretariat
D. General Secretary
Answer:
C. Secretariat

Question 4.
A mother’s work for the family is
A. Labour with pay
B. Labour without pay
C. Unorganised Labour
D. Organised Labour
Answer:
B. Labour without pay

Question 5.
The part of the country’s economy concerned with providing services.
A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. Unorganized sector
Answer:
C. Tertiary sector

Question 6.
Red soils are formed from
A. Under the conditions of high temperature and rainfall.
B. Decomposition of organic matter
C. Weathering of granite, gneiss and other crystalline rocks.
D. Sediments deposited by rivers
Answer:
C. Weathering of granite, gneiss and other crystalline rocks.

Question 7.
Which of the following comprise ‘Quantitative credit control measures’
A. Change in lending Margins
B. Moral suasion
C. Direct action
D. Bank rate policy
Answer:
D. Bank rate policy

Question 8.
Unemployment in developed countries is chiefly due to
A. Cheap imports from developing countries
B. Out – sourcing of white collar jobs
C. High wages for employees
D. Economic Depression
Answer:
B. Out – sourcing of white collar jobs

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each: (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 9.
The expansion of British rule was easier in South India during the rule of Lord Wellesly. Why?
Answer:
Because the powerful states of Marathas and Mysore had become weak and the expansion in South India was easier.

Question 10.
Vernacular press act was major hurdle in the development of Indian Journalism, Why?
Answer:
Many National and Vernacular newspapers j of India wrote and published articles j encouraging Indian Nationalism while criticizing the English polices. This promoted the English to enact the ‘Vernacular Press Act in 1878, to J curb the independence of the independent press.

Question 11.
The strategy adopted by a country to regulate its relationship with other countries is known as?
Answer:
Foreign Policy.

Question 12.
An Indian household has employed a minor girl as house maid. The head the household can be arrested under which act of the Indian constitution.
Answer:
‘Child Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act of 1986 (as amended in Jyly 2016.)

Question 13.
How does the physical features of an area affect the distribution of population?
Answer:
The mountain and hilly areas are sparsely populated such as the Northern and North Eastern hilly areas, whereas the Great plains of North India and the deltas have dense population.

Question 14.
Which is the most important agrobased industry.
Answer:
Cotton textile Industry.

Question 15.
What happens when public expenditure is higher than public expenditure of a country.
Answer:
It leads to the development of a country.

Question 16.
What is the main intention of consumer protection movement?
Answer:
Against exploitation by producer and traders.

III. Answer the following questions in three si/ four sentences each : (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 17.
Why did the British implement the ‘Policy of Association’ after the Mutiny of 1857.
Answer:

• They realized that ruling India was becoming a difficult proposition.
• They tried to earn the love and respect of Indians.
• They tried to involve Indians in the process of legislation.
• They understood that hosting to the grievances of Indians would end the violence. .
• So they implemented the ‘Policy of Association’.

Question 18.
Why did Gandhiji give the call for Quit India movement in 1942.
Answer:

• The British Government sent Stratford Cripps commission to India.
• The Commission proposed Dominion status to India.
• It called a meeting to draft a new constitution.
• It proposed the all states will have the liberty to join the Indian Federation or not.
• The congress opposed these recommendations at called for ‘Quit India’ movement.

Question 19.
What are the reasons for tensions between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The reasons for tensions between India and Pakistan.

• Jammu and Kashmir issue
• River water sharing disputes.
• Pakistan based terrorist, attacks on Indian Parliament.
• In 2001, Mumbai attack in 2007 and Pathankot attack in 2016.

OR

List two features of economically backward countries?
Answer:

• Low per capita Income and widespread poverty.
• Population explosion and high dependency
• Massive unemployment.

Question 20.
Mention the challenges faced by unorganised sector workers.
Answer:

• Labourers of unorganised sector migrate in search for work.
• They have no social security such as housing, health benefits, water, food or equal opportunity to work,
• Unorganised sector workers are not covered by legal provisions.
• They are paid less than minimum wage act.
• Child labour is rampant in unorganised sector. It forsters child labour.
• Unorganised sector labourers face physical and mental exploitation of men, women and children. Women and children are subjected to sexual exploitation.

OR

What are the reasons of child trafficking.
Answer:

• Child labour, child marriage, school dropouts.
• Poverty
• Negligence in families
• Bonded labour
• Frequent migrations and shifting of residences
• Exposure to social media and internet
• Social inequalities, gender discrimination
• Lack of skills

Question 21.
Give the importance of coal in India.
Answer:

• Important source of power generation in India.
• Provides many by-products which are used as raw materials by industries.
• Ammonia, coal tar, coal gas, benzol, naptha and sulphur are the major by-products of coal.
• The by-products are used in chemical industries such as dyes, plastics, synthetic fibers, rubber.

Question 22.
How are different types of roads classified in India.
Answer:
Indian roads are classified on the basis of construction and maintainance.

• Golden quadrilateral and super highways.
• National Highways
• State highways
• District roads
• Village roads

Question 23.
What are the goals of public expenditure.

• Promote faster economic development
• Promote industry, trade and commerce
• Promote agricultural and rural development
• Promote balanced regional growth
• Build socio – economic overheads such as roadways, railways, dams; power etc
• Promote full – employment
• Maximize social welfare

Question 24.
How does globalization help to spread of local foods to other countries?
Answer:

• Globalisation creates international cultural exchange
• It spreads multi – culturalisation and better individual access to cultural diversity including food culture and diversity.
• It creates international travel and tourism.
• Hence it spreads local foods such as pizza and India food to other countries.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 25.
Explain the method adopted by Rayanna to fight the British.
Answer:

• Rayanna was a brave soldier in the army of Chennamma of Kittur.
• Rani Chennamma along with Rayanna fought with the British against the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ and independence of Kittur.
• Chennamma was imprisoned.
• Rayanna organised an army of five hundred men.
• He conducted secret meetings on war strategies. He adopted guerrilla tactics to torment the British.
• He looted government treasury and taluk offices of the British.
• He was a terror to the locals who assisted the British and punished them.
• Rayanna was betrayed by Amaldhar Krishnaraya.
• He was captured and hanged.

OR

Illustrate the Judicial system formulated through East India Company.
Answer:

• Warren Hastings took over the the administration as Governor in 1772.
• Warren Hastings introduced two types of courts in each district they are:

a) Dewani Aadalat: A civil court, in which Hindus were dispensed Justice as per the Hindu Scriptures and the Muslims as per the Shariyat.
Civil courts came under the administration of European officers.

b) Fouzadaari Aadalat: A criminal court, which were under the court of Qajis and functioned under the supervision of European officers.
Gradually, the British Legal Procedures were introduced in the criminal courts.

Question 26.
How will you justify the Arya Samaj’s faith in Veda’s?
Answer:

• Arya Samaj was founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswathi.
• He believed that solutions to the various maladies of India were present in Vedas.
• So he declared ‘Back to Vedas’ and only Vedas were authentic.
• Arya Samaj encouraged Indians to study vedas and the ancient sacred texts and to preach them.
• They started ‘Shuddi movement’ to reconvert Indians who had converted to other religions.

Question 27.
Explain the significance of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• The Mutiny of 1857 proved that Indian’s vehemently opposed the rule of the British over India.
• The British realized that until they gain the affection and belief of Indians, ruling India would be difficult.
• They realised that the concerns of Indians need to be urgently addressed.
• British decided to involve Indians in the process of legislation though the ‘Policy of Association’.
• The’Mutiny of 1857 proved to be a guide post of future struggles.
• It outlined the importance of seeking alternative channels to pursue future struggles against the British.

Question 28.
Explain the relationship between India and Russia.

• Both India and Russia have cordial. relationship.
• India has good bi-lateral relationship with Russia in the field of economics, politics and other areas.
• Russia opposed China’s invasion of India in 1962.
• Russia supported Tashkent Agreement between India and Pakistan in 1966.
• India and Russia signed agreement of 20 years for peace and co – operation in 1971.
• Russia supported the establishment of Bilal and Bhokora steel plants.
• Russia supported India to improve industries and science and technology.
• Russia extends support in India’s quest for permanent seat in UNO Security Council.

Question 29.
India has (taken many measures to eradicate untouchability. Justify.
Answer:

• Article 17 of Indian constitution prohibts a untouchability.
• The government has implemented ‘Untouchability Crime Act’ in 1955.
• The government has implemented ‘Civil Rights Protection Act’ in 1976 which makes practice of untouchability a crime.
• It has provided universal rights to vote and participation in elections to all.
• Provided reservation in education and employment for SC, ST and BC.
• The act of 1989, provides specific responsibilites for governments in eradication of untouchability.

Question 30.
Communication is important for development of a country. Substatiate.
Answer:
Importance

• It helps in quick transmission and discrimination of ideas, information and messages from person to person and place to place.
• Communication helps in creating awareness -among the people about government policies and programmes of development.
• It enables us to know about natural hazards and disasters,’weather forecasting etc. It helps in the progress of trade, industry, agriculture etc.
• It provides entertainment, day to day information of the world. Helps to maintain unity and integrity of the country.

OR

Explain the major earthquake zones in India.
Answer:
Distribution:
There are 3 major earthquake zones in India:
1. The Himalayan Zone: This zone include the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. It is a zone of maximum intensity. The earthquakes in this zone are basically due to plate tectonics i.e in Chamoli and Uttarakashi.

2. The Indo – Gangetic Zone: It lies to the south of the Himalayas. It comprises of Rajasthan, plains of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. This zone is called “The zone of moderative intensity”.

3. The peninsular zone: It includes the Islands of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicober and Rann of Kutch. Peninsular India had been considered as a stable landmass. Only a few earthquakes have been occured in this zone mostly in recent years. Therefore it is known as “Zone of minimum intensity”.

Question 31.
Sugarcane is an important commercial crop in India. Justify.
Answer:

• India has the largest area under sugarcane cultivation.
• India is second largest producer of Sugarcane, next to Brazil.
• Sugarcane is native to India.
• It is main source of sugar, jaggery and khandasari.
• Sugarcane is grown in Uttarpradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 32.
Explain the major dis-advantages of Globalization.
Answer:

• Unemployment due to  out sourcing of jobs to developing countries.
• Child labour and slavery
• Fierce – competition leading to unethical business practice.
• Environmental degradation.
• Cultivation of habits of consuming junk food, lead to life style diseases like obesity etc.
• Spread of fatal diseases like AIDS, Dengue, SARS etc.
• Depletion of natural resources.

OR

Explain the major objectives of consumer Act.
Answer:

• Safety and quality
• Curbing production and sale of dangerous goods.
• Prevention of Trade malpractices
• Supervision on quality, weights, measures and price.
• Compensating consumers for defective goods and services.
• Creating consumer awareness.

Question 33.
Explain Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Answer:

• GST is comprehensive indirect tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services.
• It replaced indirect taxes levied by union and state Governments.
• It is collected at each stage of sale or purchase of goods and services.
• It avoids double taxation.
• It is easier to administrate and enforce.
• It provides faster and free movement of goods and services, through less paper work.

OR

How to achieve gender equality?
Answer:
The steps to achieve gender equality are

• To provide social, economic, educational and political equality to women.
• Equality of freedom and opportunities to both men and women
• To increase the sex ratio.
• Compulsory free education for girl child.
• To provide reservations for women in all spheres of life
• Improvement of health of women and girl- child.
• Promote participation of women in economic activities.
• Empower women by enacting laws beneficial to their welfare.

V. Answer the following questions in Six sentences each : (4 × 4= 16)

Question 34.
The accession of Jammu and Kashmir is different from all other accersions Substatiate.
Answer:

• King Hari Singh of Kashmir remained independent after August 1947.
• Pakistan sent tribal terrorists to invade Kashmir.
• Pakistan feared Kashmir would join India.
• India could not help Harisingh as Kashmir was not a part of India.
• So Harisingh joined India in October 1947,
• Indian Army were successful in driving away the tribal warriors.
• North – East Kashmir still remains with Pakistan as Pakistan occupied Kashmir (POK).

Question 35.
How did USA gain upper hand in the competition of stockpiling weapons?
Answer:
The Second World War caused utmost misery and death in the human history. It also changed the social political and economic changes in the world. In the place of League of Nations, United Nations Organization came into existence. The winning countries of the Second World War; England, China, USA, USSR and France became the. permanent members of the UN Security Council.

USSR and USA became powerful among rival countries. This led to the Cold War. The colonies of Asia and Africa were able to achieve their independence. England, France and other European countries lost their most of colonies. The Indian Independence can be understood from this angle also. Since, USA used Nuclear Weapon in Japan, Nuclear Arm race started between the powerful countries.

Question 36.
What are the measures needed for the eradication of unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a growing problem in India. About 25 % of Indian population is composed of youths who can be profitably engaged in the economical development of India

The Government has to take measures to generate employment for them. Steps have to be taken to improve the skill level of the Job seekers so that they can have better access to employment.

More over, it is important for the government to encourage the young educated people to be self employed. The government should provide easy and interest free loans and subsidy to enable people to engage in self employment.

A huge and friendly market should be established to sell the goods and products generated through self employment to compete n the globalised markets.

The quality of education should be improved and upgraded periodically to match the current requirement of industries and business. Skill development, practical knowledge and training should be made compulsory in schools and colleges to empower them to seek employment.

Rural youth should be encouraged to develop agriculture based industries m rural areas so that they do not have to migrate to cities in search of employment.

Question 37.
How can forests be conserved?
Answer:

• Control of deforestation.
• Restriction of grazing.
• Control of forest insects and diseases.
• Prevention of encroachments on forests.
• Control of forest fires.
• Controlling illegal cutting of trees.
• Scientific cutting of trees.
• Legislation to check deforestation.
• Encourage afforestation.
• Creating awareness among the people about importance of forests.

VI. 38. Draw outline map of India and mark the given by naming them (1 + 4 = 5)
A] Satpura Range
B] Digboi
C] Bengaluru
D] Kochi
Answer:

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Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Science Model Question Paper 1 With Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are provided for each of the following questions or incomplete statements. Choose the most appropriate alternative and write with its alphabet. ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items
A) Grass, flowers, and leather
B) Grass, wood and plastic
C) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juice
D) Cake, wood and glass
Answer:
C) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juice

Question 2.
The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
A) Zygote
B) Utreus only
C) Placenta
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Placenta

Question 3.
One of the main aim of conservation is to try and preserve the ______ we have inherited.
A) Ecosystem
B) Biodiversity
C) Environment
D) Universal
Answer:
B) Biodiversity

Question 4.
Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
A) I²R
B) IR²
C) VI
D) V²/R
Answer:
B) IR²

Question 5.
By which reaction metal is obtained from metal oxide
A) Liquification
B) Reduction
C) Calcination
D) Roasting
Answer:
B) Reduction

Question 6.
Conversion of electrical signal to chemical signal occurs at:
A) Dendrite of a neuron
B) Axon of a neuron
C) Nerve ending of a neuron
D) Cell body of a neuron
Answer:
C) Nerve ending of a neuron

Question 7.
Which of the following reaction will never occur
A) Cu + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂
B) Mg + H₂SO₄ → MgSO₄ + H₂
C) 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂
D) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl + H₂
Answer:
A) Cu + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂

Question 8.
Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
A) Strong acid and strong base
B) Weak acid and weak base
C) Strong acid and weak base
D) Weak acid and strong base
Answer:
D) Weak acid and strong base

II. Answer the following questions ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 9.
What are autosomes and sex chromosomes?
Answer:
Human cell contain 23 pairs of chromosomes out of 23 pairs, 22 pairs are called autosomes, rest of 1 pair, which determine the sex of child is called sex chromosomes.

Question 10.
What does the high level of total coliform count in river Ganga indicate?
Answer:
The high level of total coliform count in river Ganga indicates that the water is contaminated by disease causing microorganisms (mainly sewage).

Question 11.
Why are we not able to see the things clearly when we come out of a dark room?
Answer:
When we are in dark, pupil size is bigger, as we come out of dark room, its size needs to become smaller. For that time interval the person is unable to see.

Question 12.
What is an electric current? Write its SI unit.
Answer:
The rate of flow of charges through a conductor is called an electric current. Its SI unit is ampere (A).

Question 13.
In a bakery, baking powder was not added while preparing cake. The cake obtained was hard and small in size. What is the reason for this.
Answer:
Baking powder is used for baking cakes. It contains sodium hydrogen carbonate, which breaks down when heated to form CO₂ gas. The CO₂ help to make the cakes light and fluffy.

Question 14.
Why do we consider tungsten as suitable material for making the filament of a bulb?
The filament of an electric bulb is usually made of tungsten because of its higher resistivity value (5.56 × 10 Ω m) and its high melting point (3422°C).

Question 15.
Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Answer:

• Carbon dioxide : Air, through stomata.
• Water : Soil through roots.
• Sunlight; From the sun, present in green parts of the body absorbed by chlorophyll molecules plant body.

Question 16.
What is combustion?
Answer:
The complete oxidation of a carbon compound leading to the formation of CO₂ and H₂O is called combustion.

III. Answer the following questions. ( 8 × 2 = 16 )

Question 17.
“Two areas of study namely evolution and classification are interlinked” Justify the statement?
Answer:

• Different forms of organisms or life have evolved during the course of evolution. Classification deals with grouping of there organisms into groups and subgroups based on their similarities and differences.
• The characteristics commonly seen in any two species will be closely related and they will be closely related and they will have a more recent or common ancestor.
• Thus, classification helps tracing the evolutionary relationships between the two organisms. Hence it can be said that classification and evolution are interlinked.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts.
i) Split rings ii) Brushes
Answer:

Question 19.
What is the advantages of disposable paper cups over disposable plastic cups?
Answer:
Disposable paper cups are biodegradable as they are degraded by saprophytic bacteria and fungi. The disposable plastic cups remain in the environment for longer period of time causing pollution as they are non-biodegradable.

OR

What does energy flow diagram indicate?
Answer:
Energy flow diagram indicates the following:

• Energy flow is undirectional.
• As much energy is wasted only a limited number of trophic levels (3 or 4) are found in the food chain.
• Biological magnification of harmful non – biodegradable substances occur in food chain.

Question 20.
Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in electrolytic refining of copper and label the electrode where pure copper is deposited.
Answer:

Question 21.
Why are decomposition reaction called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
In decomposition reaction, a single compound splits to give rise to two or more simple substances. In combination reaction, two or more simpler substances combine together to form a single compound. Hence they are opposite to each other.
Example of decomposition reactions :

Example of combination reaction

OR

Give an example of redox reaction, naming the substances which are oxidised and reduced.
Answer:

Question 22.
Draw the structure of a neuron and label and following parts.
Answer:

Question 23.
What is short circuit? State one condition that leads to it. Name the device in the household that acts as a safety measure for it.
Answer:
When live wire and neutral wire come in direct contact, a heavy current in the circuit is called short circuiting.
Factor : Insulation of wire is damaged.
Safety device : Electric fuse.

Question 24.
Draw the ray diagram showing the position of the object and image, to get the virtual erect image whose size is enlarged by using convex lens.
Answer:

IV. Answer the following questions ( 9 × 3 = 27 )

Question 25.
a) Define Resistance of conductor.
Answer:
The property of the conductor to oppose the flow of charges through it.

b) Calculate the equivalent resistance between A and B from the following combination of resistors.
Answer:

Here 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in parallel. So equivalent resistance

Two resistor of \(\frac{2}{3}\) Ω are in series is parallel to \(\frac{2}{3}\) Ω resistor.
Equivalent resistance between A and B

Question 26.
What is Geothermal energy? How can it be harnessed to produce electrical energy.
Answer:
The energy obtained from the earth’s crust is called Geothermal energy.
When underground water comes in contact with hot spots, steam is generated. The steam is taken out through pipe to a turbine to produce electricity.

OR

List three factors responsible for the wind. State three limitations in harnessing wind energy.
Answer:
Three factors responsible for wind:

1. Uneven heating of earth’s surface.
2. Rotation of the earth.
3. Local condition – change in pressure, temperature.

Three limitations:

1. Can be used where wind blows for a greater part of the year.
2. Wind speed should be higher than 15 km / hr.
3. Establishment is expensive and requires large area.

Question 27.
Define and show in a diagram, the following terms relating to concave mirrors.
i) Aperture
ii) Radius of curvature
List any four uses of concave mirror.
Answer:
i) The diameter of the reflecting surface of the mirror is called aperature.

ii) The radius of the sphere of which reflecting surface of the spherical mirror forms a part is called the radius of curvature of the spherical mirror.

Uses of concave mirror are :

• Shaving mirror.
• Reflectors in automobile head light and torches.
• By dentists to see back side of tooth.
• Reflector of solar furnaces.

Question 28.
What happens when a solution of baking soda is heated? Write chemical equation for the same. Name the product which is responsible for making the bread or cake spongy and fluffy.
Answer:
When baking soda is heated it decomposes to produce sodium carbonate, water and carbondioxide gas.

CO₂ gas produce during the reaction makes the cake or bread spongy and fluffy.

OR

i) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water. Give an example.
ii) How is tooth decay related to pH.
iii) Why does bee – sting cause pain and irratiation?
Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area gives relief. How?
Answer:
i) Alkali, NaOH
ii) Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. It can be prevented by using toothpaste which are generally basic.
iii) Bee sting has acid that cause pain and irritation.
Baking soda being alkaline, Neutralises acid and given relief.

Question 29.
How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a current carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet?
Answer:
When electric current flows through a solenoid, magnetic field is set up around the solenoid. The pattern of the magnetic field is same as that of the magnetic field of a bar magnet. One end of the solenoid behaves as north pole and the other end of the solenoid behaves as south pole.

To determine the north and south poles of a current carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet, suspend it with a strong thread. Now bring the north pole of a bar magnet towards one end of the solenoid. If the solenoid attracts towards the magnet then the face of the solenoid is south pole. If the bar magnet moves away from the solenoid, then the face of the solenoid is the north pole.

Question 30.
a) What is meant by least distance of distinct vision?
Answer:
It is the minimum distance up to which eye can see clearly and is called the least distance of distinct vision.

b) What happens to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye.
Answer:
The size of the eye can change, so the image distance is fixed when we increase the distance if the eye does not change, due to power of accommodation of the eye, focal length of the eye lens is changed, which compensates the increase in object distance. Hence image distance remains fixed and image is formed on the retina of the eye.

OR

a) Why are we not able to see the things clearly when we come out of a dark room?
Answer:
When we are in dark, pupil size is bigger, as we come out of dark room, its size needs to become smaller. For that time interval person is unable to see.

b) Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning.
Answer:
During sunrise, the light rays coming from the sun have to travel a greater distance in the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes.

In this journey, the shorter wave length of lights are scattered out and only longer wavelength are able to reach our eyes. Since blue colour had a shorter wavelength and red colour has longer wave length, the red colour is able to reach our eyes after the atmospheric scattering of light. Therefore the sun appear reddish early in the morning.

Question 31.
a) Define speciation?
Answer:
Speciation is arising of a new species from a sub-population of a species which is geographically or reproductively isolated over a long period of time from the other population of the same species.

b) Mention the sex chromosomes present in human male and human female with the help of a flow chart determine genetically in human beings the sex of the offspring if the sperm carrying x chromosomes fertilizers the egg.
Answer:

Question 32.
a) Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
Answer:
The SI unit of power of lens is dioptre which is denoted by the letter D. 1 Dioptre is defined as the power of a lens of focal length 1 meter.

b) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement.
Answer:
The refractive index of diamond is 2.42 this means that the speed of light in diamond will reduce by a factor of 2.42 as compared to its speed in air. In other words the speed of light in diamond is 2.42 times less than the normal speed of light in vacuum.

c) In which type of lens linear magnification is always less than one?
Answer:
Concave lens always has linear magnification less than one, because it always gives diminished images.

Question 33.
a) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane.
Answer:
The formula for cyclopentane is C₅H₁₀. Its electron dot structure is given below.

b) How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and carboxylic acid.
Answer:
We can distinguish between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid on the basis of their reaction with carbonate and hydrogen carbonates. Acids reacts with carbonate and hydrogen carbonate to evolve CO₂ gas that turns lime water milky.
Metal carbonate / metal hydrogen carbonate + carboxylic acid.
↓
Salt + water + Carbondioxide.
Alcohols on the other hand, do not react with carbonates and hydrogen carbonates.

OR

What are addition reaction? What are catalysts? Illustrate with an example.
Answer:
Reactions which involve addition of two reactants to form a single product are called addition reactions. Catalysts are the substances which can change, usually increase the speed of a chemical reaction without being used up in that reaction.

For example, vegetable oils having long unsaturated carbon chains are converted into vegetable ghee by heating them in presence of Nickel, platinum or palladium metals used as catalysts.

V. Answer the following questions. ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
a) Define Mendeleev’s periodic law.
Answer:
Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses, b) The elements of the third period of the periodic table are given below :

a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?
Answer:
Sodium is bigger than magnesium at it has lesser nuclear charge so there is less force of attraction between nucleus and valence electrons and less effective nuclear charge. It is, therefore bigger in size.

b) Identify the most i) Metallic and ii) Non-metallic element in period 3.
Answer:
i) Sodium is the most metallic as it can lose electrons easily due to its larger atomic size.
ii) Chlorine is the most non – metallic element because it can gain electrons easily due to its smallest atomic size.

OR

a) What are groups and period in the periodic table?
b) Two element M and N belong to group I and II respectively and are in the same period of the periodic table. How do the following properties of M and N vary?
1) Size of their atoms
2) This metallic characters
3) Their valencies informing oxides.
4) Molecular, formulae of their chlorides.
Answer:
a) The vertical columns in the periodic table are called group. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods.
b) 1. M and N belong to the same period but group I and li. Therefore N will be smaller than M as a atomic size is decreases from left to right.
2. M is more metallic than N. Metalic character goes on decreasing from left to right as tendency to lose electrons.
3. Their valencies are 1 and 2 respectively in forming oxides. Valency goes on increasing first and then decreases.
4. MCl, NCl₂ are molecules formulae of their chlorides.

Question 35.
Draw the diagram showing the structure of human alimentary canal and label the following parts.
a) The part which stores bile juice
b) The longest part of the alimentary
Answer:

Question 36.
a) Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Answer:
To prevent the oxidation of oil and fat present in food items, nitrogen gas is flushed in food packets products formed due to oxidation of oil and fat have unpleasant smell and taste due to rancidity. Flushing food items containing fat and oil with nitrogen prevents rancidity.

b) Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
Answer:
i) Calcium hydroxide + Carboridioxide → Calcium carbonate + water
Answer:
Ca(OH)_2(aq) + CO_2(g) → CaCO_3(s) + H₂O_(l)

ii) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + silver
Answer:
Zn_(s) + 2AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

iii) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper
Answer:
2Al_(s) + 3CuCl_2(aq) → 2AlCl_3(aq) + 3Cu

Question 37.
a) List the physical properties of metals.
Answer:
Physical properties of metals are :

• Metals are usually hard.
• They are Sonorous.
• They are lustrus
• Metals exhibit malleability and ductility
• They exhibit high tensil strength and have high densities.

b) Differentiate between roasting and calcination. Explain the two with the help of suitable chemical equations.
Answer:
Roasting : It is a process in which sulphide ore is heated in the presence of oxygen to convert into oxide.
2Zns + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂

Calcination : It is a process in which carbonate ore is heated in the absence of air to form oxides.

By reduction process Zn can be extracted from its ore.
Reduction : 2ZnO + C → ZnO + CO₂

VI. Answer the following question. ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 38.
a) What is fertilisation? Distinguish between external fertilisation and internal fertilisation. What is the site of fertilisation in human beings.
Answer:
Fertilisation is defined as the fusion of a male gamete (sperm) with a female gamete (an ovum or egg) to form a zygote during sexual reproduction external fertilisation.

• The fusion of male gamete (sperm) and female gamate (ovum) occur outside the body.
• Both individuals discharge their gamates outside the body.
• Development occurs outside the body.
  Ex: Frog.

Internal fertilisation :

• The fusion of gametes occurs inside the body.
• Only the male discharge sperm into female gentital tract.
• Development occurs inside the body.
  Ex : Humans, cattle etc.

The site of fertilisation in human beings is in the fallopian tube of female reproductive system.

b) How does growing embryo get nutrition from the mother’s blood?
Answer:
The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall and transfer glucose and oxygen from the mother to the embryo.

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Science Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Science Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Science Model Question Paper 2 With Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. Four alternatives are provided for each of the following questions or incomplete statements. Choose the most appropriate alternative and write with its alphabet. ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 1.
Part of the flower that develops into fruit and part the seed that develops into root respectively are
A) Ovary and plumule
B) Plumule and radicle
C) Ovary and radicle
D) Ovary and ovule
Answer:
C) Ovary and radicle

Question 2.
The chemical equation that represent neutralization reaction among the following is
A) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl
B) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
C) 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → NaSO₄ + 2H₂O
D) AgNO₃ + HCl → AgCl + HNO₃
Answer:
C) 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → NaSO₄ + 2H₂O

Question 3.
The action of bile can be termed as :
A) Esterification
B) Hydrogenation
C) Oxidation
D) Emulsification
Answer:
D) Emulsification

Question 4.
Which of the following are environment friendly practices ?
A) Carrying cloth – bags to put purchases while shopping.
B) Switching of unnecessary lights & fans
C) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 5.
Bauxite is an ore of which metal
A) Iron
B) Aluminium
C) Copper
D) Tin
Answer:
B) Aluminium

Question 6.
The frequency of power supply used in India
A) 70 HZ
B) 60 HZ
C) 50 HZ
D) 30 HZ
Answer:
C) 50 HZ

Question 7.
On passing excess, of CO₂ gas in an aqueous solution of calcium carbonate milkness of the solution
A) Persists
B) Fades
C) Deepens
D) Disappears
Answer:
B) Fades

Question 8.
Which of the following is a plant hormone
A) Thyroxin
B) Cytokinin
C) Insulin
D) Oestrogen
Answer:
B) Cytokinin

II. Answer the following questions ( 8 × 1 = 8 )

Question 9.
State ohm’s law.
Answer:
Under similar physical conditions and at constant temperature the current flowing thought a wire is directly proportional to the potential difference applied across its ends.

Question 10.
Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium into another?
Answer:
Due to changes in velocity of light in the medium and to reduce the time to travel the same.

Question 11.
What id mutation.
Answer:
ways to protect their DNA from changes inspite of those mechanisms, however changes in the DNA occasionally do occur. Any changes in the DNA sequence is called a mutation.

Question 12.
Why does raw bread taste sweeter on mastication ?
Answer:
Salivary amylase which converts starch into sugars.

Question 13.
Why does a copper vessel develop with green coating in rainy season ?
Answer:
Oxygen, carbon dioxide and water vapour of the air attack copper metal forming green coloured basic copper carbonate. The formula is CuCO₃, CU(OH)₂

Question 14.
Will Current flow more easily through a thick wire or thin wire of the same material when connected to the same source ? Why ?
Answer:
The current will flow more easily through thick wire because the resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to area of cross section. If thickness of the wire less is resistances and hence more easily the current flows.

Question 15.
Why does distilled water not conduct electricity whereas rain water does ?
Answer:
Distilled water cannot conduct electricity because it does not contain ions while rainwater conducts electricity as it contains ions due to presence of dissolved salts in it.

Question 16.
What is reflex arc ?
Answer:
The structural and functional unit that carries out reflex action is called a reflex arc.

III. Answer the following questions ( 8 × 2 = 16 )

Question 17.
An electric bulb of 200 Ω draws a current of 1 ampere. Calculate the power of the bulb. The potential difference at is ends and the energy in kwh consumed in burning it for 5h.
Answer:
Power of the bulb
Power of the bulb P = I²R= (1)² x 200
P = 200 W
Energy consumed by bulb in 5h in burning
= Power x time
= 200 x 5
= 1000 wh = 1 kwh.

Question 18.
What are structural isomers ? Name the first member of alkanes that shows structural isomerism.
Answer:
Compounds with identical molecular formula but different structures are called structural isomers.
Butane or C₄H₁₀

Question 19.
Draw the circuit symbols of the following
i) Variable resistance
ii) Wire crossing without joining.
Answer:

Question 20.
Describe how hydro-energy can be converted into electrical energy.
Answer:

• High rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water to collect it at suitable height. The stored water has a lot of potential energy.
• The water from a suitable height is allowed to fall on the blades of a turbine located at the bottom of a dam through a pipe.
• Kinetic energy of flowing water rotates the turbine helping the armature coil of generator to rotate rapidly in the magnetic field. Thus hydroelectricity is generated.

OR

Explain how the tidal energy is harnessed and write one limitation of the use of tidal energy.
Answer:
Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam near the shore. During the high tidal water flows into the dam during the low tides later flows out this flowing water rotates the turbine present at the opening of the dam and produces electricity.

Question 21.
Draw a diagram of excretory system in human beings label the following parts.
i) Urethra ii) Left renal vein
Answer:

Question 22.
Draw the ray diagram showing the position of the object and image to get real the inverted image, whose size is same as the object using convex lens.
Answer:

Question 23.
Why must we conserve our forests ? List any two causes for deforestation to take place.
Answer:
We must conserve our forests as they are of great value the reasons for conserving forests are.

• Forests help in protection of land and retaining sub soil water.
• Forests check floods and maintain ecosystem.
• Therefore forests must be conserved for economic and social growth.

Two causes of deforestation taking place are.

• For industrial needs.
• For development projects like building of road or dams.

Question 24.
Give reasons :
i) “Alloys of iron-are more useful when compared to pure iron”
Answer:

• Pure iron is very soft
• Stretches, when easily when hot
• Alloys are hard
• The properties of iron can be changed if it is mixed with other substances.

ii) Aluminium oxide is called amphoteric oxide
Answer:
Aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) reacts with both acids as well as bases to produce salt and water.

OR

i) Metals are regarded as electro positive elements
ii) Articles of aluminium do not corrode even though aluminium is an active metal.
Answer:
i) Metals have a tendency to lose one or more electrons to form positive ions, therefore metals are called electro positive elements.
ii) Aluminium being a reactive metal readily combines with oxygen to give a protective layer of Al₂O₃. As a result further corrosion stops.

IV. Answer the following questions. ( 9 × 3 = 27 )

Question 25.
a) Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layers in the atmorphere.
Answer:
Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to the depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.

b) What step is being taken to limit the damage to the ozone layer.
Answer:

• Judicious use of aerosol spray propellants such as fluro carbons and chlorofluro- carbons which cause depeletion or hole in ozone layer.
• Control over large scale nuclear explosions and limited use of supersonic planes.

Question 26.
a) State the modern periodic law.
Answer:
“Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number”

b) How does the electronic configuration of atom of an element relate to its position in the modren periodic table? Explain with one example.
Answer:
The position of elements depend upon number of valence electrons which depend upon electronic configuration those elements which have same valence electrons occupy same group. Those elements which have one valence electrons belong to group 1 elements, which have two valence electrons belong to group 2. Period numbers is equal to the number of shell.

Example : atomic number of sodium (Na) is 11, so electronic configuration will be 2, 8, 1. Sodium has one valence electron in valence shell so it belong to group 1 as sodium has three shells, so it belong to 3rd period.

OR

a) How does the electronic configuration of atom relates to its position in the modern periodic table.
Answer:
In the periodic table elements are placed according to their atomic number. If an element has only one shell in its electronic configuration it is placed in the first period, if the element has two shells then it is placed in the second period and so on. Vertical column in the periodic table are called groups there are eighteen groups and in a group all the elements have same number of valence electron.

b) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine Cl – 35 and Cl – 37, in different slots because of their different atomic masses are in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. Cl – 35 and Cl – 37 will be placed in same slot. The modem periodic table is based on atomic numbers not atomic mass since, both Cl – 35 and Cl – 37 have same atomic numbers hence they are placed in same slot.

Question 27.
What is meant by electric current? Name and define its SI unit. In a conductor electrons are flowing from B to A. What is the direction of conventional current? Give justification for your answer.
Answer:
A steady current of 1 ampere flows through a conductor. Calculate the number of electrons that flows through any section of the conductor is 1 second (charge on electron 1.6 x 1019 Coulomb)

Electric current : The amount of charge Q flowing through a particular area of cross section in unit time ‘t’ is called electric current, ie., Electrict current, I = Q/t
SI unit of electric current is ampere

One ampere of current is that current which flow when one coulomb of electric charge flowing through a particular area of cross section of the conductor is one second, i.e, 1A = 1 CS^-1

The direction of conventional current is A to B, ie., opposite to the direction of flow of electrons. In a metal, flow of electrons carrying negative charge constitutes the current. Direction of flow of electrons given the direction of electronic current by convention, the direction of flow of positive charge is taken as the direction of conventional current charge
= q = ne
For q = I Coulomb

OR

a) Write two points of difference between electric energy and electric power
b) Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps which one has higher electrical resistance when in use.
c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules. Electric energy
Answer:
The work done or energy supplied by the source in maintaining the flow of electric current is called electrical energy. It appears in the from of heat given by
H = VIt = \(\frac{v^{2} t}{R}\) = I²RT

• It is equal to be product of power and time E = P × t
• It SI unit is joule (J)
  1J= 1W × 1S

Electric power:
The time rate at which electronic energy is consumed or dissptied by an electrical device is called electric power and is given by
P = VI = \(\frac{v^{2}}{R}\) = I²R
It is equal to the rate of doing work by an energy source
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Its SI unit is watt(W)
1W = 1 JS^-1

b) For the same applied voltage P & \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
i,e less the same power of electrical device higher it is electrical resistance.

c) Kilowatt hour – commercial unit of electrical energy.
1 kwh = 1000 wh = 1000 J/S × 3600 see
= 3600000 J = 3.6 × 10⁶J

Question 28.
Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus showing the reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning and label the soap bubbles filled with hydrogen.
i) Soap solution ii) Delivery tube
Answer:

Question 29.
What is Tyndall effect ? What is its cause? Explain two phenomenon observed in daily life which are based on Tyndall effect.
Answer:
Tyndal effect : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution placed in a dark room the path of beam becomes illuminated when observed through a microscope placed perpendicular to the path of light. This effect is called Tyndall effect.

Causes of tyndal effect : The size of the collidal partical is relatively larger then the solute particals of a true solution. The collidal particles first absorb energy from the incident light and then a part of energy from their surface. Thus tyndall effect is due to scattering of light by the colloidal particals and the colloidal particles are seen to be moving as points of lights moving againist a dark background.

Daily life examples :

• When sunlight passes though a canopy of a dense forest the tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light and become visible.
• When a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke filled room through a small hole the smoke particals become visible due to the scattering of light.

OR

a) What is myopia ? State the two causes of myopia
Answer:
Myopic eye can see objects at short distance inability of the eye in viewing long distant objects the image falls before retina causes of myopia.

• Elongation of eye ball
• Excessive curvature in cornea.

b) Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object placed whith in 10 cm from the eye?
Answer:
A normal eye is unable to clearly see the objects placed closer then 25 cm because the ciliary muscles of eyes are unable to contract beyond a certain limit.

When the object is placed at a distance less or more than 25 cm from the eye than the object appears blurred and induces strain in the eyes.

Question 30.
Draw a diagram of human brain label the parts.
i) Cranium ii) Pituitary gland
Answer:

Question 31.
a) State in brief the function of the following organs in the human female reproductive system. Ovary’, fallopian tube, uterus
Answer:
Function of ovary :

• Production of female gamete.
• Production of female hormone

Function of fallopian tube :

• Site of fertilization
• Transfer of female garnets from ovary

Function of uterus:

• Implantation of zygote fertilizes the egg.
• Nourishment to the developing embryo

b) Why mensuration take place ?
Answer:
Menstruation : It is the periodic breakdown of uterine lining and it is removed along with blood & mucous in human female uterine lining is required to nourish the embryo that is formed if fertilization takes place. In absence of fertilization the lining is not required and hence is shed in the from of menstruation.

Question 32.
a) Name two metals which can evolve hydrogen gas by reacting with very dilute nitric acid.
b) Explain the formation of MgO by transfer of Electrons.
Answer:
a) Magnesium and Manganese
b) Formation loses two electrons , and forms
Magnesium ions to complete its octet.
Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2^e-
oxygen gains that two electrons to become O^2-
Mg²⁺ + O₂ → MgO

Question 33.
Define genetics what is the contribution of Mendel in the field of genetics ?
Answer:
The branch of biology that deals with the study of heredity and variation is called genetics Gregor Johann Mendel was the first person to carry out experiment regarding the heredity of certain characters from one generation to another in a scientific manner. He worked mainly on the garden pea plant.

His observations regarding the occurance of contrasting characters in various generations of garden pea led him to interpret that these are controlled by units which he called factors. These factors are today know as genes. He is also know as the ‘father of genetics’.

OR

a) How can we trace evolutionary relationships ?
Answer:
Evolutionary relationships can be traced by studying fossils, by studying homologous and analogous organs, by comparing the embryo or of different animals and by comparing the DNA’s of different species.

b) Define variation in relation to a species. Why is variation beneficial to the species.
Answer:
Variation are differences that occur between the organisms of same species in spite of the same basic features.
Variation in species promotes survival of an organism in the changing environment by increasing the adaptability.

V. Answer the following questions. ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
a) Explain why the planets do not twinkle ?
Answer:
Planets are much closer to the earth and are seen as extended sources, so a planet may be considered as a collection of a large number of point size light sources, although light coming from individual point sized sources flicks but the total amount of light entering our eye from all the individual point sized sources average out to be constant thereby planets appear equally bright and there is no twinkling of planets.

b) What is the colour of the clear sky during day time? Give the reason for it.
Answer:
Clear sky appears blue when sunlight passes through the atmosphere having the molecules of air and other fine particles whose size is smaller then the wavelength of visible light. These molecules and particular scatter the blue colour more strongly then the other colours of spectrum. As the wave length of blue colour is more, this scattered blue light enters our eye, so, the colour of sky appears blue to us during day time.

Question 35.
What is an esterification reaction ?
Answer:
When carbonic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄, pleasant fruity smelling compound is formed this type of reaction is called esterification reaction.

b) Write a chemical equation in each case to represent -the following types of chemical reaction of organic compounds :
i) Oxidation reaction
ii) Addition reaction
iii) Substitution reaction.
Answer:
i) Oxidation reaction :

ii) Addition reaction :

iii) Substitution reaction :

OR

a) What is meant by saponification? Give an explanation.
Answer:
It is the reaction that forms soap when an ester reacts with water in the presence of base a salt of carboxylic acid and an alcohol are produced. Such a reaction is called saponification.
For example r When ethyl ethanote is heated with a solution of sodium hydroxide sodium ethanote and ethanol are produced.
CH₃COO C₂H₅ + NaOH → CH₃COONa + C₂H₅OH

b) Draw the structure of the following compound and identify functional group present in them, i) Butanoic acid ii) Bromopropane.
Answer:
i) Function group is carboxylic acid

ii) Function group is Bromine

Question 36.
How are fats digested in our bodies ? Where does this process take place ? Explain.
Answer:
Digestion of fats takes place in the small intestine the fats are digested by the digestive enzymes. The fats are present in the from of large globle in the small intestine. Bile juice secreted by the liver is produced in the intestine along with pancreatic juice. The bile salts present in the bile juice emulsify the large globles of fats.

So by emulsification large globles breakdown into fine globules to provide large surface area to act upon by the enzymes. Enzyme present in the pancratic juice cause breakdown of emulsified fats. Glands present in the wall of small intestine secretes intestinal juice which contains lipase enzyme that converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

Question 37.
a) What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving example.
b) Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with examples.
Answer:
a) Any reaction in with an insoluble solid is produced is called a precipitate reaction. For example:

b) Oxidation : It is defined as process which involves gain of oxygen
For example :

Reduction : It is defined al process which involves loss of oxygen.
For example :

VI. Answer the following question. ( 1 × 5 = 5 )

Question 38.
What are magnetic field lines ? How is the direction of a magnetic field at point determined? Mention two important properties of the magnetic field lines.
Answer:
The space surrounding a magnet in which magnetic force is exerted is called a magnetic filed. Magnetic field lines are the lines that are drawn at every point indicating the direction in which a north pole would move if placed at that point. They are determined by placing an imaginary hypothetical north pole at that point and finding the direction in which it would move due to the magnetic filed at that point of a compass needle gets deflected when placed near a magnet due to the magnetic force exerted by the magnet on it.

Some important properties of magnetic field lines are :

• The tangent drawn at any point on the field line indicates the direction in which a north pole would move if placed at that point
• The relative strength of the field is proportional to the degree of closeness of the lines. The more clustered they are the stronger the field in the region.
• The magnetic field lines never intersect. This is because a pole can move only in zone direction and if the lines intersect they would have to move in two direction simultaneously which is impossible.