Category: 2nd PUC

You can Download Chapter 13 Representation of Geographical Data Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 13 Representation of Geographical Data

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each:

Question 1.
Construct a Line-graph by using the following data Karnataka : Selected district wise Area under rice [in hectares].

District	Area
Bellary	1,22,721
Davanagere	1,30,208
Mysore	1,23,803
Raichur	1,64,925
Shimoga	1,31,070
Mandya	88,657

Answer:

Question 2.
Construct a Line-graph by using the following data Karnataka : Selected district – wise Population [in lakh].

District	Population
Belgaum	47.8
Bagalkot	18.9
Bijapur	21.8
Bidar	17.0
Raichur	19.3
Dharwad	18.5

Answer:

Question 3.
Construct a Line-graph by using the following data India: Net area sown of selected crops [in lakh hectare] 2011.

Crops	Net sown area
Paddy	358.64
Jowar	30.55
Bajra	86.38
Maize	75.84
Groundnut	49.84
Soybean	93.35

Answer:

Question 4.
Construct a Double Line graph by using following data Karnataka: Selected district wise decade growth rate of Population [in Percentage].

District	2001	2011
Bellary	22.41	24.92
Gulbarga	21.76	17.94
Shimoga	13.10	6.88
Bijapur	17.51	20.38
Mysore	15.75	13.39
Kolar	14.46	11.04

Answer:

Question 5.
Construct a Double Line graph by using following data Karnataka : Selected district wise sex ratio [Per – 1000 Males].

District	2001	2011
Belagum	960	969
Bagalkot	980	984
Bijapur	950	954
Bidar	949	952
Raichur	983	992
Koppal	983	983

Answer:

Question 6.
Construct a Double Line graph by using following data Karnataka : Selected district wise sex ratio [in Lakh] -2011.

District	Male	Female
Haveri	8.2	7.8
Shimoga	8.8	8.7
Mysore	15.1	14.9
Bangalore	50.2	46.0
Bellary	12.4	12.2
Gulbarga	13.0	12.6

Answer:

Question 7.
Construct a Single bar graph by using following data India: Selected state wise Rice Production [in Percentage].

District	Production
West bengal	15.80
Andhra Pradesh	12.71
Uttar Pradesh	11.91
Punjab	10.86
Orissa	7.31
Tamilnadu	7.08
Karnataka	3.70

Answer:

Question 8.
Construct a Single bar graph by using following data Karnataka : Decade wise sex ratio [Per 1000 males].

Year	Female
1951	966
1961	959
1971	957
1981	963
1991	960
2001	965
2011	968

Answer:

Question 9.
Construct a Single bar graph by using following data India: Decade wise sugarcane production [in million tons].

Year	Production
1951	57.05
1961	110.0
1971	126.36
1981	156.24
1991	241.04
2001	286.00
2011	310.0

Answer:

Question 10.
Construct a double bar graph by using the following data Karnataka: Selected district wise density of population [Per sq.km.

District	2001	2011
Ramnagar	288	303
Bangalore [Rural]	380	441
Chikkaballapur	273	298
Kolar	346	384
Yadagir	183	224
Gulbarga	198	233

Answer:

Question 11.
Construct a double bar graph by using the following data Karnataka: Literacy rate [in percentage] – 2011.

Year	Male	Female
1961	36.2	14.2
1971	41.6	21.0
1981	48.8	27.7
1991	67.3	44.3
2001	76.1	56.9
2011	82.9	68.1

Answer:

Question 12.
Construct a double bar graph by using the following data Karnataka: Selected district wise literacy rate [in percentage] – 2011.

District	Male	Female
Dakshina Kannada	93.31	84.80
Haveri	83.89	70.65
Tumkur	82.05	66.45
Mandya	78.14	62.10
Koppal	78.21	56.22
Bagalkot	80.16	58.55

Answer:

Question 13.
Construct a Pie Diagram using the following data India: Types of Railway gauges – 2012.

Types	Percentage
Broad gauge	86
Meter gauge	10
Narrow gauge	4

Answer:

Question 14.
Construct a Pie – Diagram using the following data India: Area under selected Kharif crops [in lakh hectare].

Crops	Area
Cereals	35.5
Pulses	16.4
Oilseeds	12.0
Commercial crops	11.0
Others	5.1

Answer:

Question 15.
Construct a Pie-diagram using the following data India: The percentages of N.H in terms of width -2011.

Types	Percentage
Single Lane	21
Double Lane	54
Four/six/eight	25

Answer:

Question 16.
Explain the Primary sources of data?
Answer:
Meaning – The data which are collected for the first time by a researcher or groups of researchers, institution or organizations are called Primary sources of data.

Types of Primary data collection:-
1. Through Personal interview : Personal interviews are the most commonly used method of collecting data, because the interviewer has the opportunity of explaining the study and answering any question, here the researcher gets direct information from the respondents.

2. By Personal observations: It refers to the collection of data or information by individuals or group of individuals, through direct observations in the field.

3. By Questionnaire : The most common method used in surverys is the Questionnaire. In this method, simple questions and their possible answers are written on a plain paper, and the respondents have to tick mark the possible answers from given choices.

4. Others methods :

• Telephone interview: In this method, the researcher/interviewer can collect the information over the telephone.
• Measuring properties: In this method, the data about properties of soil, and water collected directly from the field by measuring their characteristics using soil and water quality kit.

Question 17.
Explain the Secondary sources of data?
Answer:
Meaning – The data those have been collected and analyzed already by some departments, organizations, NGO’s etc are called Secondary data.

Types of Secondary sources of data

1. Published sources – There are 5 types

1. International publications: In this publications-year books, monographs and reports are published by different agencies of the united nations.
2. Government publication: These publications comprise the census of India published by office of the register general of India.
3. Semi Government publication: In this category the publications and reports of corporations, boards, urban development authorities etc.
4. Private publication : The research reports, surveys, year-books and monographs are published.
5. Newspapers and Periodicals : The daily news papers and periodicals or magazines are easily accessible.

2. Unpublished sources – There are 3 types.

1. Government Documents : The reports, papers, findings, monographs and documents are prepared a$d maintained as unpublished records at different levels of Government.
2. Government Records : The corporations, boards, district councils and civil departments prepare and maintain the periodical reports and the development plans.
3. Private Documents : The companies, trade unions, different political and non-political organizations and resident welfare associations are having unpublished reports and records.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Primary and Secondary data?
Answer:

Primary	Secondary
(a) The data which are collected for the  first time by a researcher or group of researchers, institutions or organizations are called Primary data.	(a) The data those have been collected and analyzed already by some departments, NGO’s etc …. are called Secondary data.
(b) These are original in character and first hand information.	(b) Here instead collecting the data by primary  method the researcher may take, the help of Secondary data.

Question 19.
Explain the components of GIS. Ans: The components of GIS are
Answer:

1. Data : Geographical data can be divided into 3

• Spatial data Any data which is associated with a specific geographical location, eg Locating of India, Bangalore city, KRS dam.
• Attribute/Non-spatial data Any data which is not associated with a specific geographical location.
• Continous dataThe data which have no discrete boundaries like soil, atmospheric temperature and land elevation.

2. Software : There are the programmes designed to run the computer. However, GIS is designed to collect, store, process geographical data and construct maps.
3. Hardware : Hardware comprises storing and processing devices like central process unit, monito, key board, mouse, printer, scanner etc…
4. People : This component consists of the skilled people who involve in data capturing, processing and analyzing.
5. Analysis : It involves the processing of GIS data with various analyses so as to get meaningful information.

Question 20.
Explain the functions of GIS.
Answer:

• Capture data : Geographical data can be collected/captured from various sources like hard copy, map through tophosheet, digital data, through GPS, Secondary data through published tables.
• Storing data : Geographical data once captured, it needs to transform from Analogy into digital format and to be stored in computer for further analysis.
• Query : Once you have a functional GIS containing your geographical information, you can begin to ask a simple questions.
• Analysis : There are 3 types
  1. Proximity Analysis : Proximity queries find features with in a certain distance of other features.
  2. Overlay Analysis : It is simplest, this could be a visual operation, but analytical operations require One or more data layers to be joined physically.
  3. Network Analysis : Anetwork is a set of edges and junctions that are Topologically connected to each other.
• Display : Once analysis is done maps, diagrams, graphs and tables are to be designed and same has to be displayed over computer moniter.
• Output: This is final, stage of GIS function where in the maps, data tables etc…. can be printed to have hard copy as output.

Question 21.
Explain the segments of GPS.
Answer:
There are three segments of GPS:-

1. The space segments : The satellites of GPS are launched and positioned at an altitude of approximately 20200 km which is almost more than three times of the earth’s radius. The space segment consists of a constellation of 24 functioning GPs satellites located in 6 orbital plane with 4 satellites in each orbital plane. The time for the satellite to complete one revolution around the earth is 11 hrs and 58 minutes.

2. The control segment: The control segment consists of facilities necessary for satellites especially healthy monitoring, telemetry, tracking command and control clock error ‘ computation .of satellites. There are 5 GPS stations spread over the earths surface they are

• Hawaii
• Colorado spring
• Ascension Island
• Diego Garcia
• Kwajalein.

3. The user segment: It is a total user and supplier community, both civilian and military. The user segment consists of all earth – based GPS receivers. Receivers very greatly in size and complexity, through the basic design in rather simple. The space and control segments are largely transparent to the operations of navigation functions.

Question 22.
Explain the applications of GPS.
Answer:

• Navigation : In navigation, by using GPS can save countless hours in the field. Any feature, even if it is under water, can be located upto one hundred meters simply by scaling coordinates from a map, entering way points & going directly to site.
• Remote sensing and GIS : GPS positioning can be intergrated into remote – sensing methods such, as Photogrammetry and aerial scanning, magnetometry, and video technology using DGPs techniques.
• Surveying/Mapping : The high precision of GPS’ carries phase measurements, together with appropriate adjustment algorithum, provides an adequate tool for a variety of tasks for surveying and mapping. .
• Geodesey : Geodetic mapping and other control surveys can be carried out effectively using high grade GPs equipment.
• Military : The GPs was Primarily develped for real time military positioning. Military applications include airbone, marine and land navigation.

Question 23.
Explain the elements of remote sensing?
Answer:

• Energy source of Illumination (A) – The first requirement for remote sensing is to have an energy source which illuminates or provides electromagnetic energy to acquire information of the earth’s surface.
• Radiation and the Atmosphere (B) – As the energy travels from its source to the target, it will come in contact with and interact with the atmosphere it passes through.
• Interaction with the Target (C) – Once the energy makes its way to the target through the atmosphere.
• Recording of energy by the sensor (D) – After the energy has been scattered by, or emitted from the target we require a sensor to collect and record the electromagnetic radation.
• Transmission, Reception and Processing (E) – The energy recorded by the sensor has to be transmitted, often in electronic form, to a receiving and processing station where the data are processed into an image.
• Interpretation and Analysis ’(F) – The processed image is interpreted, visually/or digitally or electronically, to extract information about the target which was illuminated.
• Application (G) – The final elements of the remote sensing process is acheived when we apply the information to better understand it and solve a particular problem.

Question 24.
Write the importance of remote sensing?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the science and art of obtaining information about an object, area or phenomenon through the analysis of data aquired by a device that is not in contact with it. This is done by sensing and recording reflected or emitted energy and processing, analyzing and applying that information.

In much remote sensing, the process involves an interaction between incident radiation and the targets of interest. This device can be a camera or a bank of sensors operated from an airplane or a satellite. Though satellite we can collect date related agriculture, forest, urban land use, water, natural calamities etc the satellite data is based for mapping, monitoring, studying the various phenomena related to earth’s surface.

You can Download Chapter 10 Financial Markets Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 10 Financial Markets

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Text Book Exercises

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Primary and secondary markets :
(a) compete with each other
(b) complement each other
(c) function independently
(d) control each other
Answer:
(b) Primary Market and Secondary Market complement each other as primary market deals with the issue of new securities and secondary market also helps the fresh Investor to enter the market.

Question 2.
The total number of Stock Exchanges in India is :
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
Answer:
(d) There are 23 stock exchanges in India list of stock exchanges in India are Bombay, National, Regional, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bhubaneshwar, Calcutta, Cochin, Coimbatore, Delhi, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Ludhiana, Madhya Pradesh, Madras (Chennai), Magadh, Mangalore, Meerut, OTC Exchange of India, Pune, Saurashtra Kutch, Vadodara.

Question 3.
The settlement cycle in NSE is
(a) T+5
(b) T+3
(c) T+2
(d) T+1
Answer:
(c) The settlement cycle in NSE is T + 2.

Question 4.
The National Stock Exchange of India was recognised as stock exchange in the year
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) NSE was incorporated in 1992 and was recognised as a stock exchange in April 1993.

Question 5.
NSE commenced futures trading in the year
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(b) In 2000 NSE commenced future tradings.

Question 6.
Clearing and settlement operations of NSE is carried out by
(a) NSDL
(b) NSCCL
(c) SBI
(d) CDSL
Answer:
(b) NSCCL carries out the clearing and settlement operations of NSE.

Question 7.
OTCEI started on the lines of
(a) NASDAQ
(b) NYSE
(c) NASAQ
(d) NSE
Answer:
(a) OTCEI (Over The Counter Exchange of India) was established on the lines of NASDAQ. (National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations).

Question 8.
To be listed on OTCEI, the minimum capital requirement for a company is :
(a) ₹ 5 crores
(b) ₹ 3 crores
(c) ₹ 6 crores
(d) ₹ 1 crore
Answer:
(b) In order to have its securities listed, the companies should have a minimum capital of ₹ 3 crores.

Question 9.
A Treasury bill is basically:
(a) an instrument to borrow short term funds
(b) an instrument to borrow long term funds
(c) an instrument of capital market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Treasury Bills are instruments to borrow short term funds. These are issued by RBI on behalf of the Government of India.

Question 10.
REPO is
(a) Repurchase agreement
(b) Read of the process
(c) Reliance petroleum
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Repurchase agreement

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Short Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the functions of a Financial Market?
Answer:
Financial market plays an important role in the allocation of scarce resources in an economy by performing the follow ing four important functions
a. Mobilisation of savings and channelising them into the most productive uses: A financial market facilitates the transfer of savings from savers to investors. It gives choice to the saver of different investments and thus, it helps to channelise surplus funds into the most productive use.

b. Facilitate price discovery: In a financial market, the households are suppliers of funds and business firms represent the demand. The interaction between them helps to establish a price for the financial asset which is being traded in that particular market.

c. Provides Liquidity to financial assets: Financial markets facilitate easy purchase and sale of financial assets. Holders of assets can readily sell their financial assets through the mechanism of financial market.

d. Reduces the cost of transactions: Financial markets provide valuable information about securities being traded in the market. It helps to save time, effort and money that both buyers and sellers of a financial asset would have to spend to try or otherwise find each other.

Question 2.
“Money Market is essentially a Market for short term funds:’ Discuss.
Answer:
The money market is a market for short term funds which deals in monetary assets whose period of maturity is upto one year These assets are close substitutes for’money. It is a market where low risk, unsecured and short term debt instruments that are highly liquid are issued and actively traded everyday. It enables the raising of short term funds for earning returns.

The major participants in the market are the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial Bank. Non¬Banking Finance Companies, State Governments, Large Corporate Houses and Mutual Funds.

Question 3.
What is a Treasury Bill?
Answer:
A Treasury Bill is an instrument of short term borrowing by the Government of India, Maturing in less than one year. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. Treasury Bills are issued in the form of a promissory note.

They are highly liquid and have assured yield and negligible risk of default. They are issued at a price which is lower than their face value and repaid at par. Treasury bills are available for a minimum amount of ₹ 25,000.

Question 4.
Distinction between Money Market & Capital Market?
Answer:

SL. No.	Money market	Capital market
a.	It deals in short term funds.	It deals in a long term funds.
b.	The maturity period is from one day to one year.	The maturity period is for more than one year and can also include life time of a company.
c.	It provides funds for working capital requirement.	It provides funds for fixed capital requirement.
d.	Rate of returns is low	Rate of returns is high.
e.	Financial risk is relatively less.	Financial risk is relatively more.

Question 5.
What are the functions of a Stock Exchange?
Answer:
The efficient functioning of a stock exchange creates a conducive climate for an active and growing primary market. Following are the important functions of a stock exchange.
a. Providing liquidity and marketability to existing securities: The basic function of a Stock Exchange is the creation of a continuous market where securities are bought and sold. It gives investors the chance to disinvest and reinvest. Thus it provides both liquidity and easy marketability to the existing securities in the market.

b. Pricing of securities: Share prices on a stock exchange are determined by the forces of demand and supply. A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. Such a valuation provides important instant information to both buyers and sellers in the market.

c. Safety of transactions: The membership of a stock exchange is well-regulated and its dealings are well defined according to the existing legal framework, which ensures that the investing public gets a safe and fair deal on the market.

d. Contributes to economic growth: A stock exchange is a market in which existing securities are resold or traded. This process of disinvestment and reinvestment of savings gets channelised into productive investment avenues. This leads to capital formation and economic growth.

e. Spreading of Equity Cult: The stock exchange plays vital role in ensuring wider share ownership by regulating new issues, better trading practices and taking effective steps in educating the public about investments.

6. Providing scope for speculation: The stock exchange provides sufficient scope within the provisions of law for speculative activity in a restricted and controlled manner.

Question 6.
What are the objectives of the SEBI?
Answer:
The overall objective of SEBI is to protect the interest of investors, promote the development and regulate the securities in market. This may be elaborated as follows.
a. To regulate stock exchanges and the securities industry, to promote their orderly functioning.
b. To protect the rights and interests of investors, particularly individual investors and to guide and educate them.
c. To prevent trading malpractices and achieve a balance between self-regulation by the securities and its statutory regulation.
d. To regulate and develop a code of conduct and fair practices by intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc with a view to making them competitive and professional.

Question 7.
State the objectives of the NSE.
Answer:
NSE was set up with the following objectives.
a. Establishing a nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
b. Through an appropriate communication network, ensuring equal access to investors.
c. Through electronic trading system to provide a fair, efficient and transparent security market.
d. To enable shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlements.
e. Meeting international benchmarks and standards.

Question 8.
What is the OTCEI?
Answer:
The OTCEI is a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956. It was set up to provide smaii and medium companies an access to the capital market for raising finance in a cost effective manner. It is fully computerised, transparent, single window Exchange which commenced trading in 1992. This exchange is established on the lines of NASOAO the OTC exchange in USA. It has been promoted by UTI, ICICI, IOBI, IFCI, LIC, GIC, SBI, capital markets and Canbank financial services.

It is a negotiated market place that exists anywhere as opposed to the auction market place, represented by the activity on securities exchange. Thus, in the OTC, exchange, trading takes place when a buyer or seller walks up to an OTCEI counter, taps on the computer screen, finds quotes and effects a purchase or sale depending on whether the prices meet their target.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Long Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various money Market Instruments.
Answer:
Money Market Instruments :
1. Treasury7 Bill: A treasury7 bill is an instrument of short term borrowing by the Government of India maturing in less than one year. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds issued by Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirements of funds. They are issued in the form of a promissory note. They are highly liquid and issued at a price which is lower than their face value and repaid at par. Treasury bills are available for a minimum amount of ₹ 25,000.

2. Commercial Paper: Commercial paper is a short term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a fixed maturity period. It is issued by large and creditworthy companies to raise short term funds at lower rates of interest than market rates. It usually has a maturity period of 15 days to one year. The issuance of commercial paper is an alternative to bank borrowing for large companies that are generally considered to be financially strong. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money: Call money is a short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions. Commercial Banks have to maintain a minimum cash balance known as cash reserve ratio. Call money is a method by which banks borrow from each other.

4. Certificate of Deposit: Certificates of deposit are unsecured, negotiable, short term instruments in bearer form, issued by Commercial Banks and Development Financial Institutions. They can be issued to individuals, Corporations and Companies during periods of tight liquidity, when the deposit growth of banks is slow but the demand for credit is high. They help to mobilise a large amount of money for short periods.

5. A Commercial Bill: A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. It is a short term negotiable, self- liquidating instrument which is used to finance the credit sales of firms. When goods are sold on credit, the buyer becomes liable to make payment on a specific date in the future.

Question 2.
What are the methods of floatation in Primary Market?
Answer:
The primary market is also known as the new’ issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. There are various methods of floating new issues in the primary’ market
1. Offer through Prospectus: This involves inviting subscriptions from the public through issue of prospectus. A prospectus makes a direct appeal to investors to raise capital, throuqh an advertisement in newspapers and magazines. The issues may be under written and also required to be listed on at least one stock exchange. The contents at the prospectus have to be in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act and SEBI disclosure and investor protection guidelines.

2. Offer for Sale: Under this method securities are not issued directly to the public but offered for sale through intermediaries like issuing houses or stock brokers. In this case, company sells securities enblock at an agreed price to brokers who, in turn, resell them to the investing public.

3. Private placement: Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors and some selected individuals. It helps to raise capital more quickly than a public issue. Access to the primary market can be expensive on account of various mandatory’ and non-mandatory expenses.

4. Rights Issue: This is a privilege given to existing shareholders to subscribe to a new issue of shares according to the terms and conditions of the company. The shareholders are offered the ’right’ to buy new shares in proportion to the number of shares they already possess.

5. e-IPOs: A company proposing to issue capital to the public through the on-line system of the Stock Exchange has to enter into an agreement with the stock exchange. This is called an Initial Public Offer (IPO). SEBI registered brokers have to be appointed for the purpose of accepting applications and placing orders with the company. The issuer company should appoint a registrar to the issue having electronic connectivity with the exchange. The issuer company can apply for listing of its securities on any Exchange other than the Exchange through which it has offered its securities. The lead manager co-ordinates all the activities amongst intermediaries connected with the issue.

Question 3.
Explain the Capital Market reforms in India.
Answer:
The National Stock Exchange is the latest, most modern and technology driven exchange. NSE has setup a nationwide fully automated screen based trading system. The NSE was setup by leading financial institutions, banks, insurance companies and others financial intermediaries. It is managed by professionals, who do not directly or indirectly trade on the exchange. The trading rights are with the trading members who offer their services to the investors. The Board of NSE comprises senior executives from promoter institutions and eminent professionals, without having any representation from trading members.
Objectives of NSE:
a. Establishing a nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
b. Ensuring equal access to investors all over the country through an appropriate communication network.
c. Providing a fair, efficient and transparent securities market using electronic trading sys-tern.
d. Enabling shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlements, (v) Meeting international bench marks and standards.
Within a span of 10 year, NST Was able to achieve its objectives for which it was set up. It has been playing a leading role as a change agent in transforming the Indian capital market.

Question 4.
Explain the objectives and functions of SEBI. .
Answer:
Objectives of SEBI are as follows:
a. Development of securities market: The main objective of SEBI is to develop the securities market. It strictly prohibits the malpractices of brokers, merchants and companies involved in securities market and encourage transparent transaction dealing in the stock exchanges.

b. Protection of interest of investment: SEBI aims at protecting the rights and interests of investors through accurate and authentic information to the investors. SEBI can prosecute the companies if they fail to follow the rules and regulations laid down by SEBI.

c. Regulation of capital market: SEBI regulates both the primary and secondary capital markets. Every company issuing the shares to the public has to take the clearance from SEBI and follow the rules regarding the issue, settlement and speculation etc.

Functions of SEBI are:

• Regulating the business in Stock Exchanges and any other securities market
• Registering and regulating the working of mutual funds
• Promoting and regulation of self-regulatory organizations
• Prohibiting insider trading in securities.
• Regulating substantial acquisition of shares and take-over of companies. –
• Conducting enquiries and audit of stock exchanges.
• Levying fees and other charges for carrying out its functions.
• Conducting research for the above purposes.
• Promoting investors’ education and training of intermediaries of securities market.
• Registering and regulating the working of capital market intermediaries.

Question 5.
Explain the various segments of NSE.
Answer:
NSE provides trading in the following two segments
a. Wholesale debt market segment: This segment provides a trading platform for a wide range of fixed income securities that include Central Government Securities, Treasury Bills, State Development Loans, Bonds issued by Public Sector Undertakings, floating rate Bonds, zero coupon Bonds, index Bonds, Commercial Paper, Certificate of Deposit, Corporate Debentures and Mutual Funds.

b. Capital Market Segment: The capital market segment of NSE provides efficient and transparent platform for trading in equity, preference, debentures, exchange traded funds as well as retail government securities.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Case Problems

‘R’ Limited is a real estate company which was formed in 1950. In about 56 years of its existence the company has managed to carve out a niche for itself in this sector. Lately, this sector is witnessing a boom due to the fact, that the Indian economy is on the rise. The incomes of middle class are rising. More people can afford to buy homes for themselves due to easy availability of loans and accompanying tax concessions.

To expand its business in India and abroad the company is weighing various’options to raise money through equity offerings in India. Whether to tap equity or debt, market whether to raise money from domestic market or international market or combination of both? Whether to raise the necessary finance from money market or capital market. It is also planning to list itself in New York Stock Exchange to raise money through ADR’s. To make its offerings attractive it is planning to offer host of financial plans products to its stakeholders and investors and also expand it’s listing at NSE after complying with the regulations of SEBI.

Questionn 1.
What benefits will the company derive from listing at NSE?
Answer:
Following are the benefits the company can derive from listing at NSE
a. NSE provides nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
b. The liquidity and best available prices for the securities are ensured by the processing speed of the Exchange.
c. The NSE network is used to disseminate information and company announcements across the country.
d. Enabling shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlement.

Question 2.
What are the regulations of SEBI that the company must comply with?
Answer:
Following are the regulations of the SEBI for new issues that the company must comply with.
a. Prospectus has to be attached with every application.
b. Objective of the issue and cost of project should be mentioned in the prospectus.
c. Company’s management, past history and present business of the firm should be highlighted in the prospectus.
d. Subscription list for public issue should be kept open for a minimum of 3 days and maximum of 10 days.
e. Collection agents are not allowed to collect application money in cash.
f. Issue should make adequate disclosure regarding the terms and conditions of redemption security conversion and other relevant features of the new Instrument so that an investor can make reasonable determination of risks returns, safety and liquidity of the instrument. The disclore shall be vetted by SEBI in this regard

Question 3.
How does the SEBI exercise control over ‘R’ Limited in the interest of investors?
Answer:
SEBI will exercise control over ‘R’ Limited by the following methods.
a. Prohibiting fraudulent and unfair trade practices In the securities market, unfair trade practices include price rigging, making misleading statements etc.

b. Prohibiting insider trading i.e., restricts the persons having access to price sensitive information about the company to take undue advantage of it.

c. Examing that adequate disclosure about the terms and conditions of redemption, security conversion and other relevant features of the new Instrument at the time of issue is made so that an investor can make reasonable determination of risks returns, safety and liquidity of the instrument.

Case Problem II


The above figures are taken from the website of National Stock Exchange of India. They illustrate the movement of NSE stock indices as well as world stock indices on the date indicated.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a stock index? How is it calculated?
Answer:
Stock index refers to the index used to capture the movement of the stock market. It is a barometer which measures overall market trend through a set of stocks which are representatives of the market An ideal index must represent changes in the prices of securities and also show the price movement of different classes of shares. Most of the stock market uses the following 3 methods of calculating index.
a. Price weighted Index: An index reflecting the sum of the prices of the sample share in a certain year/month/week/day with reference to a base year.

b. Equal Weighted Index : An index reflecting the simple arithmetic average of thfe price relatives of a sample of shares in a certain period with reference to a base year,

c. Value Weighted Index: It is an index reflecting the aggregate market capitalisation of the sample shares in certain period in relation to the base year.

Question 5.
What conclusions can you draw from the various movements of NSE stock indices?
Answer:
There is a downward swing in the stock market. While comparing the previous and current index of NSE, we can say that there is a depression in the market as index is down for all the sectors.

Question 6.
What factors affect the movement of stock indices? Elaborate on the nature of these factors.
Answer:
The fall in the domestic market as given in the above table, can significantly be attributed to the market sentiments of world market. We can see the world indices and NSE indices are moving in the same direction.

Question 7.
What relationship do you see between the movement of indices in world markets and NSE indices?
Answer:
There is direct relation between NSE indices and world market indices. As there is negative trend in world index, it brings negative trend in NSE index also.

Question 8.
Give details of all the indices mentioned above, you can find information on the web or business magazines.
Answer:
Answer to this question is based on reader’s evaluation.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Additional Questions

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets One Mark Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
Name any one type of financial market.
Answer:
Money Market or Capital Market.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of financial market.
Answer:
It is a market which deals with various financial instruments & financial services

Question 3.
State the minimum & maximum period of maturity in the case of money market instruments.
Answer:
Minimum maturity period is one year and Maximum maturity period is more than one year.

Question 4.
Name any one money market instrument.
Answer:
Treasury bills or Call money

Question 5.
Name the most important constituent of Indian money market.
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

Question 6.
Name the money market instrument issued by government of India.
Answer:
Treasury bills.

Question 7.
Name any one capital market instrument.
Answer:
Debt market or Equity market

Question 8.
State any one component of capital market.
Answer:
Primary Capital Market or Secondary Capital Market

Question 9.
What is DEMAT account?
Answer:
It is an account in which all securities are held electronically by cancelling paper certificates through a process called dematerialization.

Question 10.
What is dematerialization of securities?
Answer:
Dematerialization is the process of converting the certificates held by the investor in physical form to an electronic form through DEMAT Account.

Question 11.
What is the biggest advantage of online trading on a stock exchange?
Answer:
They charge considerably lower brokerage for stock trading

Question 12.
Expand SEBI
Answer:
SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA

Question 13.
State any one objective of SEBI
Answer:
Development of securities market

Question 14.
Expand NSEI .
Answer:
National Stock Exchange India

Question 15.
Expand NASDAQ
Answer:
National Association of Securities Dealers Automate Quotation

Question 16.
Expand BSE
Answer:
Bombay Stock Exchange.

Question 17.
Expand SENSEX
Answer:
It is an abbreviation of Bombay Exchange SENSitive IndEX (SENSEX)

Question 18.
Name any one type of speculator in a stock exchange.
Answer:
Bull or Stag

Question 19.
Which market provides short term finance?
Answer:
Money Market

Question 20.
What is capital market?
Answer:
Capital market is a market for medium & long terms funds.

Question 21.
State any one function of stock exchange.
Answer:
Mobilization of savings

Question 22.
State any one depository services.
Answer:
It keeps custody of investments holding.

Question 23.
State any one function of SEBI.
Answer:
Registering & regulating the working of mutual funds.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is money market?
Answer:
It is a market for borrowing & lending of short-term funds with high liquidity.

Question 2.
What is capital market?
Answer:
Capital market is a market for medium & long terms funds. Whereby long & intermediate term funds are & made available to individuals, business & government.

Question 3.
Write any two money market instruments.
Answer:
Treasury bills. & Certificate of deposits.

Question 4.
What are treasury bills?
Answer:
A treasury bills an instrument of short term borrowing by the Government of India maturing in less than one year.

Question 5.
What are commercial papers?
Answer:
Commercial paper is a short term unsecured promissory note, negotiable & transferable by endorsement & delivery with a fixed maturity period issued by the companies.

Question 6.
What are the certificates of deposits?
Answer:
These are short term, unsecured negotiable instrument in bearer from issued by the commercial banks.

Question 7.
What is call money?
Answer:
Call money is a method by which banks faced with temporary shortage of cash, will borrow short term finance from other banks.

Question 8.
What is bankers acceptance?
Answer:
A commercial bill can be discounted with the banker before its date of maturity which is called as banker’s acceptance.

Question 9.
What is primary capital market?
Answer:
It also known as New Issue Market or Stock Market. It mobilizes the funds from the investors by the directly issuing securities.

Question 10.
What is secondary capital market?
Answer:
It is a market for the purchase & sale of second hand or existing securities. This market creates liquidity & easy marketability to the securities.

Question 11.
Name the two depositories operating in India.
Answer:
NSDL (National Securities depository Account) CDSL (Central Depository Service Limited)

Question 12.
State any two depository services.
Answer:

• A Depository helps in converting physical certificates in to electronic holding.
• It enables e-trading to the investors.

Question 13.
State any two objectives of SEBI
Answer:
Development of securities market & Protection of Interest of Investment.

Question 14.
Who is a bulls speculator?
Answer:
Bulls are speculator on the stock exchange who always expect a rise in the prices of securities.

Question 15.
Who is a bear speculator?
Answer:
Bear are the speculator on the stock exchange who always expects a fall in the prices of securities.

Question 16.
Give the meaning of spot delivery?
Answer:
It means securities are delivered to the purchaser and payment is received immediately or at the spot.

Question 17.
What do you mean forward delivery?
Answer:
Here the securities are transferred to the purchaser immediately and payment is received at later date.

Question 18.
What are blue chips?
Answer:
In stock market it represents shares with high market capitalization & also a major share included in the main index of stock exchange.

Question 19.
What are commercial bills?
Answer:
It is a negotiable & self liquidating money market instruments with low risk. It is a bill of exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business organization.

Question 20.
State two difference between capital & money market.
Answer:

SI no.	Money Market	Capital market
1.	Instruments of highly liquid.	Instruments are relatively less liquid.
2.	Rate of returns is low	Rate of returns is high

Question 21.
Define stock exchange.
Answer:
Stock exchange are organized auction markets where buyers & sellers come together through their brokers to effective transactions in securities admitted to listing on the exchange.

Question 22.
State any two features of stock exchange
Answer:
Ensures safety of funds. & Evaluation of securities.

Question 23.
What is DEMAT accounting?
Answer:
It is an account in which all securities are held electronically by cancelling paper certificates through a process called dematerialization.

Question 24.
State any two functions of SEBI.
Answer:

• Promoting & regulation self-regulator organization
• Prohibiting insider trading in securities.

Question 25.
Who is lame duck?
Answer:
Lame duck is a bear speculator who is not able to settle his transaction on his settlement day.

Question 26.
Who is stag?
Answer:
A stag is a cautious speculator. He applies for a large number of shares in the new issue market on expectation that the price of the share will rise & sold for a premium.

Question 27.
What is arbitrage?
Answer:
The operators bring stability in the prices of the securities among various stock exchanges. The operators buy the securities from the stock exchanges where the prices are low and sell it in other stock exchanges where the prices are higher.

Question 28.
What is capital market? Explain the features of capital market.
Answer:
Capital market is a market for medium & long terms funds. Where by long & intermediate term funds are & made available to individuals, business & government.

Question 29.
What is REPO and Reverse REPO?
Answer:
REPO: REPO means an instruments for borrowing funds by selling securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds borrowed.

Reverse REPO: Reverse REPO means an instrument for lending funds by purchasing securities with an agreement to repurchase the securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for funds borrowed.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain any five money market instruments.
Answer:
Treasury bills: A treasury bills an instrument of short term borrowing by the Government of India maturing in less than one year.

Call Money: Call money is a method by which banks faced with temporary shortage of cash will borrow short term finance from other banks.

Certificate of Deposit: These are short term, unsecured negotiable instrument in bearer from issued by the commercial banks. They can be issued to individuals, corporations & companies.

Commercial Paper: Commercial paper is a short term unsecured promissory note, negotiable & transferable by endorsement & delivery with a fixed maturity period issued by the companies.

Commercial Bills: commercial bills are short terms, negotiable & self liquidating money market instrument with low risk. It is used to finance the working capital requirement of business organization.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the trading procedure on a stock exchange or market.
Answer:
Selection of broker: The first step is to select a broker who will buy or sell securities on behalf of the investors as trading of securities can only be done through SEBI registered brokers

Opening DEMAT Account: The next step is to open a DEMAT account in order to trade. It is an account in which all securities are held electronically by cancelling paper certificates through a process called dematerialization.

Placing the order: The investors should specify the securities to be bought or sold & the price range to make a order to broker either personally or through telephone, mobiles, emails etc.

Executing the Order: The brokers issues a contract note & copy of the contract note is sent to the investors: The contract note contains the name & the period of the securities, names of the parties, brokerage charged.

Settlement: The mode of settlement depends upon the nature of the contract. The settlement period is T+2. That means any tread taking place on Monday gets settlement by Wednesday

Question 3.
State any ten depository service offered by a depository.
Answer:

1. It keeps custody of investors’holdings.
2. It eliminates the risk involved with the theft, forgery, damages of certificates.
3. It reduces the brokerage charges.
4. It reduces time required to clear each transaction as there is no paper work involved.
5. It helps the investors to apply for new issues, as present public issues are taking place only DEMAT mode.
6. Company pays dividend to the investors in to their bank account registered in the DEMAT account
7. All benefits like right issues, bonus shares are paid directly in to investors DEMAT account.
8. Stamp duty is not applicable for transfer of securities in DEMAT mode.
9. It enables e-banking to the investors. Investors can buy or sell shares through internet.
10. The procedure of pledging DEMAT shares is easy to raise money from leaders.

Question 4.
What is stock exchange? Explain the features of stock exchange.
Answer:
Stock exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of government & listed industries financial securities. It is a secondary market for securities, that means, the securities which are already issued in the primary market, are traded in this market.
The Main features of stock exchanges are:

• It is an organized market for securities
• It deals with existing or second hand securities.
• It regulates and control business which deals with securities.
• It doesn’t buy or sell any securities it only facilitates free & fair trade.
• Stock exchanges are the financial barometer of national economy of the country.

Question 5.
Explain the objectives of SEBI.
Answer:
SEBI – Securities Exchange Board of India was established by Government of India in 1988 as a regulator of capital market. The main idea of SEBI was to promote healthy growth of securities market and to provide protection for investors.
Objectives of SEBI are as follows:
1. Development of securities market: The main objective of SEBI is to develop the securities market. It strictly prohibits the malpractices of brokers, merchants and companies involved in securities market and encourage transparent transaction dealing in the stock exchanges.

2. Protection of Interest of Investment: SEBI aims at protecting the right & interest of investors through accurate and authentic information to the investors. SEBI can prosecute the companies if they fail to follow the rules and regulation laid down by SEBI.

3. Regulation of capital market: SEBI regulate both the primary and secondary capital markets. Every company issuing the shares to the public has to take the clearance from SEBI and follow the rules regarding the issue, settlement and speculation etc.

Question 6.
Explain the functions of SEBI.
Answer:
Functions:

• Regulating the business in stock exchanges & any other securities market
• Registering & regulating the working of mutual funds
• Promoting & regulation self-regulatory organization
• Prohibiting insider trading in securities.
• Regulating substantial acquisition of shares & take-over of companies.
• Conducting enquiries & audit of stock exchange.
• Levying fees & other changes for carrying out its functions.
• Conducting research for the above purposes.
• Promoting investors education & training of intermediaries of securities market.
• Registering & regulating the working of capital market intermediaries.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Eight Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State any ten functions of SEBI
Answer:
Functions:

• Regulating the business in stock exchanges & any other securities market
• Registering & regulating the working of mutual funds
• Promoting & regulation self-regulatory organization
• Prohibiting insider trading in securities.
• Regulating substantial acquisition of shares & take-over of companies.
• Conducting enquiries & audit of stock exchange.
• Levying fees & other changes for carrying out its functions.
• Conducting research for the above purposes.
• Promoting investors education & training of intermediaries of securities market.
• Registering & regulating the working of capital market intermediaries.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Markets Five Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List any ten stock exchanges operating in India.
Answer:
Madhay Pradesh stock Exchange, Indore (Madhya Pradesh) Magadha Stock Exchange, Patna (Bihar)
Cochin Stock Exchange, Cochin (Kerala)
Madras Stock Exchange, Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
Delhi Stock Exchange, (Delhi)
Bangalore Stock Exchange, Bangalore (Karnataka)
Canara Stock Exchange, Mangalore (Karnataka)
UP Stock Exchange, Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
Pune Stock Exchange, Pune (Maharashtra)
Meerut Stock Exchange, Meerut (Uttar Pradesh)

You can Download Chapter 12 Geographical Perspective on Environmental Issues – Planning and Sustainable Development Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 12 Geographical Perspective on Environmental Issues – Planning and Sustainable Development

2nd PUC Geography Geographical Perspective on Environmental Issues – Planning and Sustainable Development One Mark Questions with Answers

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Environment Pollution?
Answer:
Environment Pollution means the release of Harmful substances and contamination of environment.

Question 2.
What is Water Pollution? ,
Answer:
Degradation of the quality of water due to indiscriminate use of water is called water pollution.

Question 3.
At which strech/course the yamuna river is most polluted?
Answer:
In Delhi to confluence with Chambal and Mathura and Agra is the stretch of the yamuna River is most polluted.

Question 4.
What is Air Pollution?
Answer:
Increased concentration of contamiants like dust, fumes, gas, fog, odour, smoke or vapour in the air is called Air Pollution.

Question 5.
What is Noise Pollution?
Answer:
The state of high level of noise which unbearable and uncomfortable to Human beings is called Noise Pollution.

Question 6.
What are Solid Waster?
Answer:
Solid waster refers to any unwanted or discarded old materials from residental, commercial, mining, industriaTarid agricultural activities. Such as old news paper, glass bottles, plastic bags, scrap metals, junked vehicles, dead animals etc.

Question 7.
What are Slums?
Answer:
A slum is an Area of illegal construction with in the city characterized by substandard housing and dirt.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Planning?
Answer:
Planning is the process of thinking formulation of a scheme or programme and implementation of a set of action to achieve some goal. ,

Question 9.
What is Sustainable Development?
Answer:
The term sustainable Development is defined as development to achieve the needs of present generation without compromising future generation’s need.

Question 10.
What is Environment?
Answer:
The study of surroundings of man lives and works is called Environment.

Question 11.
What are the types of environement.
Answer:

1. Natural environment and
2. Cultural or man made environment.

Question 12.
What is Land Pollution.
Answer:
Disposal of untreated industrial waste, use of pesticides and fertilizers into the soil is called soil or land pollution.

Question 13.
What are effects of air pollution?
Answer:
It effects on health by various diseases related to respiratory nervous and circulatory systems, urban smog, acid rain & global warming etc.

Question 14.
What is land degradation?
Answer:
Decreasing of quality of agricultural land due to soil erosion, waterlogging, salinization and alkalization which is called ‘Land degradation’.

Question 15.
What is deforestation?
Answer:
Irresponsible cutting of trees by man for commercial and other purposes is called ‘deforestation’.

Question 16.
When the first five year plan was started? and who was the Chairman of the commission.
Answer:
In the year-1951-52. The Prime Minister is the ex-office Chairman.

Question 17.
What is ‘Kyoto Protocol’?
Answer:
It is an agreement on emissions norms for greenhouse gases in developed countries.

2nd PUC Geography Geographical Perspective on Environmental Issues – Planning and Sustainable Development Two Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What are Pollutants?
Answer:
The agents which causes of Pollution can be called Pollutants for ex: coal, petrol, diesel, toxic effluents use of pesticides and fertilizers, aircrafts, automobiles etc.

Question 2.
What are the types of Pollutions?
Answer:
The types of Pollutions are :-

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution.
3. Land pollution
4. Noise pollution.

Question 3.
What are the Causes of Water Pollution?
Answer:

• Sewage disposal
• Urban run-off
• Toxic effluents from Industries.
• Run-off over cultivated lands and nuclear power plants.

Question 4.
What are the effects of Water pollution on Human health?
Answer:
Water Pollution is a source of various water diseases which causes diarrhoea, intestinal worms hepatities etc.

Question 5.
Name the states of India where Ganga river is most polluted?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal are the states of India where Ganga river is most polluted.

Question 6.
What are the main causes of Pollution of Ganga river?
Answer:

• Industrial pollution from towns like Kanpur.
• Domestic wastes from urban centers.
• Dumping of car casses in the river.

Question 7.
Name three states of India where Yamuna river is most Polluted?
Answer:

1. Delhi to confluence with Chambal.
2. Uttar Pradesh, Mathura and Agra.

Question 8.
Wha are the causes/sources of Air Pollution?
Answer:

• Increased use of varieties of fuels such as coal, petrol and diesal.
• Increase in emission of Toxic Gases from Industrial activities into the Atmosphere.
• Mining activities release dust in the air.
• Important Pollutants are oxides of sulpher and nitrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide lead and asbestos.

Question 9.
What are the effects of Air Pollution?
Answer:

• Diseases are selected to respiratory.
• Nervous and Circulatory systems.
• Urban smog, acid rain.
• Global wanning.

Question 10.
What are the causes for Noise Pollution?
Answer:

• It is caused by from factories, demolition works.
• Noise from sirens landspeakers used in various festivals etc.
• The biggest Noise Pollution is produced by traffic and
• The sea traffic. The Noise Pollution is confind to the harbour due to loading and unloading activities being carried.

Question 11.
What are the effect of Noise Pollution?
Answer:

• It causes stress and high blood pressure nervous.
• Uneasiness among the people living close to the source of Noise Pollution.
• It has adverse effect on animal life also.
• It causes road accidents.

Question 12.
Mention two sources of solid wastes?
Answer:

1. Household or Domestic establishment
2. Industrial or Commercial establishment.

Question 13.
Explain harmful effects of Solid wastes?
Answer:

• Solid wastes cause of health hazard the diseases like typhoid, Diphtheria Diarrhoea, Malaria and Cholera etc.
• These wastes cause frequent nuisance as and when these are carelessly handled, spread by wind and split erred through Rain water.
• The dumping of Industrial wastes into rivers leads to water pollution.
• River Pollution from city based industries and untreated sewages leads to serious health problems.

Question 14.
Define the concept of land degradation?
Answer:
Pressure on agricultural land increase not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of Agricultural land due to soil erosion, water, logging, salinization and alkalization which is called‘Degradation’. ‘

Question 15.
Name different types of degraded lands in India.
Answer:

• Barren and uncultivable waste land.
• Natural degraded cultivable waste land.
• Natural and Man made degrated CWL.
• Man made degraded CWL (Cultivable Waste Land).

Question 16.
What are the strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:

• Reduce the utilization and exploitation of resources.
• By using of environment friendly sources of energy.
• The government should pay attention on integrated rural development programme.
• The government should stimulate the organic forming and recycle the wastes.

Question 17.
Write the important elements of natural environment.
Answer:
The elements of natural environment such as land, soil, water bodies, drainage system, air masses, climate, rock, soil, minerals, plains, plateau, hills, mountains, vegetation and animal life etc.

Question 18.
Write the four most polluted rivers in the world.
Answer:

1. Citarum river – Indonesia
2. Ganga river – India
3. Yellow river – China
4. Jordan river – Isarel.

Question 19.
Name any four most polluted cities in the world.
Answer:

1. Ahwaz – Iran
2. Quetta – Pakistan
3. Ludhiana – India and
4. Yasouj. – Iran.

Question 20.
Name any four most polluted countries in the world.
Answer:

1. China
2. United states
3. India
4. Russia.

Question 21.
What are remidies to control the Air and Noise Pollution.
Answer:

• Ensure that your vehicle does not spewout excessive smoke.
• Never bum tyres or plastics, which release deadly dioxins and poisonous gases.
• Say ‘no’ to crackers during Diwali and other occasions.
• Discourage your friends or neighbours from lighting bonfires.

Question 22.
What are the causes of deforestation.
Answer:

• Extension of agriculture.
• Construction of roads, railways and industries.
• Establishment human settlements and
• Mining activities.

Question 23.
Mention the drought prone areas in India.
Answer:

• Semi-arid and arid tract of Rajasthan, Gujarath.
• Western Madhya Pradesh.
• Maratha Wada region of Maharastra.
• Rayalaseema and Telangana plateaus of Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka plateau.

2nd PUC Geography Geographical Perspective on Environmental Issues – Planning and Sustainable Development Five Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Explain about urban waste disposal in India?
Answer:

• Urban centres are known for large amount of waste generation. It is a serious problem in India.
• In metropolitan cities likes Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore etc.
• About 90 percent of the solid waste is collected and disposed.
• The waste may be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost.
• Untreated wastes fermently releases toxic bio gases to the atmosphere including methane.
• These wastes should be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost etc.

Question 2.
How solid wastes can be used for benefits? State any six problems of related to slums in metropolitan cities of India?
Answer:

• Solid waste management is the collection, transportation and processing or disposal of solid wastes usually produced by human activities in an effort to reduce their effect on human health.
• Solid waste management is essential to maintain cleanliness and environment quality.
• Solid wastes cause health hazard-through creation of obnoxious smell.
• These are act as carries of diseases like typhoid, diptheria, diarrhoea, malaria and cholera etc.
• These wastes cause frequent nuisance as and when these are carelessly handled, spread by. wind and spilt erred through rain water.
• The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution.
• River Pollution from city-based industries and untreated sewages leads to serious health problems down streams.

Benefits : These wastes should be treated as resources and utilized for generating energy and compost.

Question 3.
Discuss any six problems of people living in slums?
Answer

• Slums are in environmentally unsuited and degraded area. Houses in slums are decaying, poor hygienic conditions, poor ventilation.
• Lack of basic amentities like drinking water, light and toilet facilities.
• They are overcrowded having narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards from fire.
• People living in slums are poor. Therefore problems are common.
• They are the undernourished, prone to different types of diseases and illness.
• They can not afford to give proper education to their children
• The poverty makes them vulnerable to drug abuse alcoholism, crime, vandalism and ultimately they face social exclusion

Question 4.
Mention the Processes that induce land degradation in India?
Answer:

• The land serves as storage of water and materials for plants and other living micro macro organisms.
• Pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agriculture land due to soil erosion, water logging, salinization and alkalization which is called degradation.
• The land degradation ultimately affect on agricultural productivity.
• In addition to degradation by natural process such as gullied or ravenous land deserted or coastal sands, barren rocky area land degradation is caused by man.
• These have caused water logged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity.
• Degraded shifting cultivation area and under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures and mining and industrial waste lands.

Question 5.
How the problem of land degradation can be tackled.
Answer:

• The land serves as storage of water and materials for plants and other living micro macroorganisms.
• Pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agriculture land due to soil erosion, water logging, salinization and alkalization which is called degradation.
• The land degradation ultimately affect on agricultural productivity.
• In addition to degradation by natural process such as gullied or ravenous land deserted or coastal sands, barren rocky area land degradation is caused by man.
• These have caused water logged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity.
• Degraded shifting cultivation area and under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures and mining and industrial waste lands.

Question 6.
What do you mean by the term planning? Which are the two approaches to planning? Explain each of them?
Answer:
Planning is the process by which an individual or organization decides in advance on some future course of action.
It involves the proces of thinking, formulation of a scheme or programme and implementation of a set of actions to achieve some goal.
There are two approaches to planning, sectorial planning and regional planning.

• The sectoral planning means formulation and implementation of the sets of schemes or programmes aimed at Development of various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, manufacturing power, construction, transport, communication, social infrastructure and services.
• Some areas are more developed and some lag behind.
• This uneven pattern of developed over space necessitates that the Planners should have spatial perspective and draws the plans to reduce regional imbalance in development

This type of Planning is termed as regional planning.

Question 7.
What is target area planning? Why it is necessary in India? Give any four examples of target area planning?
Answer:
Target area planning means making schmes for the development of particular group or area such as backward regions.

• This type of planning is necessary in india because region imbalances in Economic development are getting serious.
• Some of the examples of programmes directed towards the development of target areas are command Area Development Programme.
• Drought prone area development programme.
• Desert Development Programme.
• Hill area development programme.
• The small farmers development agency and margins farmers development agency which are the examples of target group programme.

Question 8.
Explain the concept of sustainable development?
Answer:

• The term sustainable development is defind as development to achieve the needs of present generation without compromising future generations needs.
• The United Nations established a world commission on Environment and Development (WCED) headed by the Norwegian Prime Minister Gro Harlem Brundtland. The commission gave its report (also know as Brundtland Report) entitled our common future in 1987.
• The report defines sustainable developed as a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs.
• Thus sustainable development takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development.
• During the present times and pleads for conservation of resources to finable the future generations to use these resources.
• It takes into account the development of whole human kind which has common future.

Question 9.
Discuss the challenges of sustainable development in India?
Answer:
Population is a major challenges for the sustainable development. In the beginning of the 21st century the population of the Earth reached 6 billion and is expected to level out between 10 and 11 billion over the next to years.

• Poverty: Almost 25 percent of the world’s population lives on less than one meal a day. It needs to be addressed.
• Inequality: Inequality continues to be a serious obstacle to sustainable development with the number of people suffering from under nourishment.
• Shortage of drinking water: It is expected that at the current rate of development, every second person will suffer from water shortage by the year 2025.
• Human health: The imminent task is to reduce the death rate among children under five years of age by two-thirds and the death rate of young mothers by 75 percent by 2015.
• Consumption of Energy: Sustainable and environmentally friendly energy sources is required.
• Deforestation: Improving the recovery and management of the forests will be of utmost importance.
• Petrol Consumption: The decisions of the ‘KYOTO Protocol’ for reaching an agreement on emissions norms for greenhouse gases in developed countries.

Question 10.
Explain the Effects of deforestration and Remidies to control it.
Answer:
Effects of deforestration:

• Soil degradation and soil erosion.
• Destruction of natural habits of wild life and loss of biodiversity.
• Climatic changes such as desertification, global warming and etc.

Remidies to control the deforestration:

• Preventation of human settlements in forest areas.
• Check on expansion of agriculture.
• Prohibition of setting up of industries in forest areas.
• Controlling on irresponsible cutting down timber trees.
• Control of over grazing on forest region.
• Controlling of mining activity in forest lands.
• Limitation on construction of Large dams in forest areas.

Question 11.
Describe about Drought prone areas programme.
Answer:
The basic objective of the programme is to minimize the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock, water and human resources.

• The programme also aims to promote overall economic development and improving the socio-economic conditions of the resource poor and disadvantaged sections.
• This programme was initiated during fourth five year plan. ’
• It is emphasized on irrigation projects.
• Land development programmes, a forestation, grassland development. .
• Creation of basic rural infrastructure such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

Question 12.
Explain the strategies for sustainable Development.
Answer:
The conceptual meaning of sustainable development is not to create an obstacle in development process but this concept belongs to how we utilize our resources. The following strategies can be useful.
Input efficient technology :- It will reduce the utilization and exploitation of resources. So this technology will be good for sustainable development.

• By using of environmental friendly sources of energy such as LPG and CNG which are Eco-friendly fuel. We can reduce the green house gases.
• The country can focus on renewable sources of energy like solar and wind for energy needs. The solar energy will create an atmosphere for green development.
• The government should stimulate the organic fanning and recycle the wastes. Sustainable development is a vision and a way of thinking and acting so that we can ensure the resources and environment for our future generations.

You can Download Chapter 9 Financial Management Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 9 Financial Management

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Text Book Exercises

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Objective-Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
The cheapest source of finance is
(a) debenture
(b) equity share capital
(c) preference share
(d) retained earning
Answer:
(d) Retained earning is the cheapest source of finance.

Question 2.
A decision to acquire a new and modem plant to upgrade an old one is a
(a) financing decision
(b) working capital decision
(c) investment decision
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Investment decision is related to careful selection of assets in which funds will be Invested by firms. Thus, the above case comes under the investment decision.

Question 3.
Other things remaining the same, an increase in the tax rate on corporate profits will
(a) make debt relatively cheaper
(b) make the debt relatively the dearer
(c) have no impact on the cost of debt
(d) we can’t say
Answer:
(a) If the tax rate on corporate profits are increased, it makes debt relatively cheaper

Question 4.
Companies with higher growth pattern are likely to
(a) pay lower dividends
(b) pay higher dividends
(c) dividends are not affected by growth considerations
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Companies who are having a higher growth pattern are likely to pay lower dividends.

Question 5.
Financial leverage is called favourable if
(a) return on investment is lower than the cost of debt
(b) return on investment is higher than the cost of debt
(c ) debt is easily available
(d) if the degree of existing financial leverage is low
Answer:
(b) If ROI is higher than cost of debt, financial leverage in that case is called favourable.

Question 6.
Higher debt equity ratio ( Debt/Equity ) results in
(a) lower financial risk
(b) higher degree of operating risk
(c) higher degree of financial risk
(d) higher EPS
Answer:
(c) Higher debt equity ratio results in higher degree of financial risk.

Question 7.
Higher working capital usually results in
(a) higher current ratio. higher risk and higher profits
(b) lower current ratio, higher risk and profits.
(c) higher equity, lower risk and lower profits
(d) lower equitably, lower risk and higher profits
Answer:
(a) If the working capital is higher, it results in higher current ratio, higher risk and higher profits.

Question 8.
Current assets are those assets which get converted into cash
(a) within six months
(b) within one year
(c) between one and three years
(d) between three and five years
Answer:
(b) Current assets are those assets which are converted into cash within one year.

Question 9.
Financial planning arrives at
(a) minimising the external borrowing by resorting to equity issues
(b) ensuring that the firm always have significantly more fund than required so that there is no paucity of funds
(c) ensuring that the firm faces neither a shortage nor a glut of unusable funds
(d) doing only what is possible with the funds that the firm has at its disposal
Answer:
(c) Financial planning means deciding how much to spend and on what to spend it ensuring that the firm faces neither a shortage nor a glut of unusable funds.

Question 10.
Higher dividend per share is associated with
(a) high earnings, high cash flows, unstable earnings and higher growth opportunities
(b) high earnings, high cash flows, stable earnings and high growth opportunities
(c) high earnings, high cash flows, stable earnings and lower growth opportunities
(d) high earnings, low cash flows, stable earnings and lower growth opportunities
Answer:
(c) Higher dividend per share includes high earnings, high cash flows, stable earning and lower growth opportunities.

Question 11.
A fixed asset should be financed through
(a) a long term liability
(b) a short term liability
(c) a mix of long and short term liabilities
(d) Not given
Answer:
(a) Fixed assets financed through longterm liability.

Question 12.
Current assets of a business firm should be financed through
(a) current liability only
(b) longterm liability only
(c) both types (i.e., long and short term liabilities)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Current assets are financed through both long and short term liabilities.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Short Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by capital structure?
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners personal and borrowed funds. It represents the proportion of equity’ and debt.
Capital Structure = (Debt/Equity)

Question 2.
Discuss the two objectives of Financial Planning.
Answer:
Financial Planning strives to achieve the following two objectives
1. To ensure availability of funds whenever these are required: This includes a proper estimation of the funds required for different purposes such as for the purchase of long term assets or to meet day-to-day expenses of business etc.

2. To see that the firm does not raise resources unnecessarily: Excess funding is almost as bad as Inadequate funding. Efficient financial planning ensures that funds are not raised unnecessarily in order to avoid unnecessary addition of cost.

Question 3.
What is ’financial risk’? Why does it arise?
Answer:
It refers to the risk of company not being able to cover its fixed financial costs. The higher level of risks are attached to higher degrees of financial leverage. With the increase in fixed financial costs, the company is also required to raise its operating profit (EBIT) to meet financial charges. If the company cannot cover these financial charges, it can be forced into liquidation.

Question 4.
Define ‘current assets’ and give four examples.
Answer:
Current assets are those assets of the business which can be converted into cash within a period of one year. Cash in hand or at bank, bills receivables, debtors, finished goods inventory are some of the examples of current assets.

Question 5.
Financial management is based on three broad financial decisions. What are these?
Answer:
Financial management is concerned with the’solution of three major issues relating to the financial operations of a firm corresponding to the three questions of Investment, Financing and Dividend decision. In a financial context, it means the selection of best financing alternative or best investment alternative. The finance function therefore, is concerned with three broad decisions which are as follows
1. Investment Decision: The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets.

2. Financing Decisions: This decision is about the quantum of finance to be raised from various long term sources and short term sources. It involves identification of various available sources of finance.

3. Dividend Decision: This decision relates to distribution of dividend.
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business for meeting investment requirements.

Question 6.
What is the main objective of financial management? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Primary aim of financial management is to maximise shareholders’ wealth, which is referred to as the wealth maximisation concept. The wealth of owners is reflected in the market value of shares. Wealth maximisation means the maximisation of market price of shares.

According to the wealth maximisation objective, financial management must select those decisions which result in value addition, that is to say the benefits from a decision exceed the cost involved. Such value additions increase the market value of the company’s shares and hence result in maximisation of the shareholders’ wealth.

Question 7.
Discuss about working capital affecting both the liquidity as well as profitability of a business.
Answer:
The working capital should neither be more nor less than required. Both these situations are harmful. If the amount of working capital is more than required, it will no doubt increase liquidity but decrease profitability. For instance, if a large amount of cash is kept as working capital, then this excessive cash will remain idle and cause the profitability to fall.

On the contrary, if the amount of cash and other current assets are very little, then lot of difficulties will have to be faced in meeting daily expenses and making payment to the creditors. Thus, optimum amount of both current assets and current liabilities should be determined so that profitability of the business remains intact and there is no fall in liquidity.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Long Answer Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is working capital? How is it calculated? Discus five important determinants of working capital requirement.
Answer:
Working capital is that part of total capital which is required to meet day-to-day expenses, to buy raw materials, to pay wages and other expenses of routine nature in the production process or we can say it refers to excess of current assets over current liabilities.
Working Capital = Current Assets – Current Liabilities
Factors affecting working capital requirement are. the following :
1. Nature of business: The basic nature of a business influences the amount of working capital required. A trading organisation usually needs a lower amount of working capital compared to a manufacturing organisation. This is because in trading, there is no processing required. In a manufacturing business, however, raw materials need to be converted into finished goods, which increases the expenditure on raw material, labour and other expenses.

2. Scale of operation: For firms which are operating on a higher scale of operations, the quantum of inventory, debtors required is generally high. Such organisations, therefore, require large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

3. Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipts of raw materials and their conversion into finished goods. Some businesses have a longer production cycle while some have a shorter one. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

4. Credit Allowed: Different firms allow different credit terms to their customers. A liberal credit policy results in higher amount of debtors, increasing the requirements of working capital.

5. Credit Availed: Just as a firm allows credit to its customers it also may get credit from its suppliers. The more credit a firm avails on its purchases, the working capital requirement is reduced.

Question 2.
Capital structure decision is essentially optimisation of risk-return relationship. Comment.
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners and borrowed funds. It can be calculated as (Debt/Equity).
Debt and equity differ significantly in their cost and riskiness for the firm. Cost of debt is lower than cost of equity for a firm because lender’s risk is lower than equity shareholder’s risk, since lenders earn on assured return and repayment of capital and therefore they should require a lower rate of return.

Debt is cheaper but is more risky for a business because payment of interest and the return of principal is obligatory for the business. Any default in meeting these commitments may force the business to go into liquidation. There is no such compulsion in case of equity’, which is therefore, considered riskless for the business. Higher use of debt increases the fixed financial charges of a business. As a result increased, use of debt increases the financial risk of a business.

Capital structure of a business thus, affects both the profitability and the financial risk. A capital structure will be said to be optimal when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Question 3.
A capital budgeting decision is capable of changing the financial fortune of a business. Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Investment decision can be long term or short term. A long term investment decision is also called a capita! budgeting decision. It involves committing the finance on a long term basis, e.g., making investment in a new machine to replace an existing one or acquiring new fixed assets or opening a new branch etc. These decisions are very crucial for any business. They affect its earning capacity over the long-run.

Assets of a firm, profitability and competitiveness, are all affected by the capital budgeting decisions. Moreover, these decisions normally involve huge amounts of investment and are irreversible except at a huge cost. Therefore, once made, it is almost impossible for a business to wriggle out of such decisions. Therefore, they need to be taken with utmost care. These decisions must be taken by those who understand them comprehensively.
A bad capital budgeting decision normally has the capacity to severely damage the financial fortune of a business.

Question 4.
Explain the factors affecting the dividend decision.
Answer:
Dividend decision relates to distribution of profit to the shareholders and its retention in the business for meeting the future investment requirements.
How much of the profits earned by a company will be distributed as profit and how much will be retained in the business is affected by many factors. Some of the important factors are discussed below.
1. Earnings: Dividends are paid out of current and past year earnings. Therefore, earnings is a major determinant of the decision about dividend.

2. Stability of earnings: Other things remaining the same, a company having stable earning is in a position to declare higher dividends. As against this, a company having unstable earnings is likely to pay a smaller dividend.

3. Growth opportunities: Companies having good growth opportunities retain more money out of their earnings so as to finance the required investment. The dividend in growth companies, is therefore, smaller than that in non-growth companies.

4. Cash flow position: Dividends involve an outflow of cash. A company may be profitable but short on cash. Availability of enough cash in the company is necessary for declaration of dividend by it.

5. Shareholder Preference: If the shareholders in general desire that at least a certain amount should be paid as dividend, the companies are likely to declare the same.

6. Taxation Policy: If tax on dividend is higher it would be better to pay less by way of dividends. As compared to this, higher dividends may be declared if tax rates are relatively lower.

7. Stock Market reaction: For investors, an increase in dividend is a good news and stock prices react positively to it. Similarly a decrease in dividend may have a negative impact on the share prices in the stock market.

8. Access to Capital Market: Large and reputed companies generally have easy access to the capital market and therefore, depend less on retained earnings to finance their growth. These companies tend to pay higher dividends than the smaller companies which have relatively low access to the market.

9. Legal constraints: Certain provisions of the Company’s Act place restrictions on payouts as dividend. Such provisions have to be adhered to, while declaring dividends.

10 Contractual Constraints: While granting loans to a company, sometimes the lender may impose certain restrictions on the payment of dividends in future The companies are required to ensure that the dividends do not violate the terms and conditions of the loan agreement in this regard.

Question 5.
Explain the term ‘Trading on Equity’. Why, when and how it can used by a company?
Answer:
Trading on equity refers to the Increase in profit earned by the equity shareholders due to presence of fixed financial charges. When the rate of earning or Return on Investment (ROI) of a company is higher than the rate of interest on borrowed funds, only then a company should opt for trading on equity. Let us consider the following example.

It should be clear from the above example that shareholders of the company ‘X have a higher rate of return than company ‘Y’, due to loan component in the total capital of the company.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Case Problems

’S’ Limited is manufacturing steel at its plant in India. It is enjoying a buoyant demand for its products as economic growth is about 7% – 8% and the deniand for steel is growing. It is planning to set up a new steel plant to cash on the increased demand it is facing. It is estimated that it will require about ? 5,000 crores to set up and about. ? 500 crores of working capital to start the new plant.

Question 1.
Describe the role and objectives of financial management for this company.
Answer:
Role of Financial Management Financial management is concerned with the proper management of funds. It involves the followin.

1. Managerial decisions relating to procurement of long term and short term funds
2. Keeping the risk associated with respect to procured funds under control.
3. Utilisation of funds in the most productive and effective manner .
4. Fixed debt equity ratio and capital.

Objective of Financial Management:
The objective of financial management is maximisation of shareholders’ wealth The investment decision, financial decision and dividend decision help an organisation to achieve its objective In the given situation, S limited envisages growth prospects of steel Industry due to the growing demand. To expand the production capacity, the company needs to invest.

How ever, investment decision will depend on the availability of funds, the financing decision and the dividend decision. However, the company will take those financial decisions which result in value addition. The benefits are more than the cost. This leads to an increase in the market value of the shares of the company.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of having a financial plan for this company. Give an imaginary plan to support your answer.
Answer:
Importance of financial plan for the company is as under.

1. Financial Planning ensures provision of adequate funds to meet working capital requirements.
2. It brings about a balance between inflow and outflow of funds and ensures liquidity through out the year.
3. It solves the problems of shortage and surplus of funds and ensures proper and optimum utilisation of available resources,
4. It ensures increased profitability through cost benefit analyses and by avoiding wasteful operations
5. It seeks to eliminate waste of funds and provides better financial control.
6. It seeks to avail the benefits of trading on equity.

Financial Plan of S Ltd
Total finance required; Fixed capital = ₹ 1,000 crores
Working capital = ₹ 100 crores : Source of finance is 2:1 Ratio i.e..
50% finance collected by issue of shares and 50% by borrowed funds,

Question 3.
What are the factors which will affect the capital structure of this company?
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the proportion in which debt and equity funds are used for financing the operations of a business. A capital structure is said to be optimum when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of shares. The factors that will affect the capital structure of this company are the following:
1. Equity Funds: The composition of equity funds in the capital structure will be governed by the following factors
(a) The requirement of funds of S Limited is for longterm. Hence, equity funds will be more appropriate
(b) There are no financial risks attached to this form of funding
(c) If the stock market is bullish, the company can easily raise funds through issue of equity shares.
(d) If the company already has raised reasonable amount of debt funds, each subsequent borrowing will come at a higher interest rate and will Increase the fixed charges.

2. Debt Funds: The usage and the ratio of debt funds in the capital structure will be governed by factors like these.
(a) The availability of cash flow with the company to meet its fixed financial charges. The purpose is to reduce the financial risk associated with such payments which can further be checked by using debt’ service coverage ratio.
(b) It will provide the benefit of trading on equity and hence will Increase the earning per share of equity shareholders. However, return on Investment ratio will be the guiding principle behind it. The company should opt for trading on equity only when return on investment is more than the fixed charges.
(c) Interest on debt funds is a deductible expense and therefore, will reduce the tax liability
(d) It does not result in dilution of management control.

Question 4.
Keeping in mind that it is a highly capital intensive sector what factors will affect the fixed and working capital ? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
The working and fixed capital requirement of’S’ Limited will be high due to the following reasons.

1. The business is capital intensive and the scale of operation is large.
2. Heavy investments are required for building up the production base and for technological upgradation
3. In case of steel industry, the major input is iron ore and coal. The ratio of cost of raw material to total cost is very high. Hence, higher will be the need for working capital.
4. The longer the operating cycle, the larger is the amount of working capital required as the funds get locked up in the production process for a long period of time.
5. Terms of credit for buying and selling of goods, discount allowed to the suppliers and to the customers also determine the quantum of working capital.
6. 

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Additional Questions

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name any one basic objective of financial marketing.
Answer:
Profit maximization.

Question 2.
What do you mean by financial decisions?
Answer:
It is concerned with mobilization of finance for the purpose of Investment

Question 3.
Name any one type of capital requirement of an organization.
Answer:
Fixed Capital or Working Capital

Question 4.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Fixed capital is refers to investments in long-term assets or fixed assets.

Question 5.
What is working capital?
Answer:
It refers to investments in current assets such as stock of materials, work-in-progress, finished goods, account receivables etc.

Question 6.
State any one factor affecting working capital requirement of a business concern.
Answer:
Nature of business.

Question 7.
State any one factor affecting fixed capital requirement of a business concern.
Answer:
Growth & Expansion prospects.

Question 8.
What is financial Management?
Answer:
It means effective and efficient management of money. It is concerned with planning & controlling of firms’ financial resources.

Question 9.
State any one importance of financial management.
Answer:
Estimating capital requirement. Or Capital Budgeting

Question 10.
State any one objective of financial management.
Answer:
Profit Maximization or Wealth Maximization

Question 11.
State any two importance of financial planning.
Answer:
Tool to face uncertainties, ensures liquidity’

Question 12.
Stat any two features of fixed capital.
Answer:
It is concerned with long term funds, it involves large amount of funds.

Question 13.
Mention any two features of working capital.
Answer:
It is concerned with short term funds, it involves lesser risk.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Two Marks Questions and Answers 

Question 1.
What is financial management?
Answer:
It means effective and efficient management of money It is concerned with planning & controlling of firms financial resources. It mainly deals with the process of procurement and utilization of funds for the business purpose.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of investment decisions.
Answer:
Investment decisions are concerned with how firm’s funds are invested in different assets either long term or short term. The long term investment decisions are also called as Capital Budgeting Decision and the short term inv estment decisions are called as Working Capital Decisions.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of dividend decisions
Answer:
Dividend decisions are concerned with the apportionment of the’firm’s profit. Dividends are the portions of the profit which will be distributed to the share holders. The portion of profit which is undistributed to the share holders are called as retained earnings which will be utilized for expansion and development of the business.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of financing decisions.
Answer:
Financing decisions are concerned with how to raise the funds for business activities from various sources. There are two source of raising fiance to. the business they are Debt and Equity. The owner fund or share holders fund are called equity. The harrowed funds are called debts.

Question 5.
State any two factors affecting working capital requirement of a business concern,
Answer:
1. Nature of business: Trie amount of working capital required basically depends on the nature of the business. Due to the cash nature of the transactions in the business. Some business requires huge working capital and some need little working capital for their operations.

2. Scale of Operations: The requirement of working capital also depends up on the scale of operation. Small Scale needs less working capital when compared to large scale.

Question 6.
State any two factors affecting fixed capital requirement of a business concern.
Answer:
Nature of business: The amount of fixed capital requirement basically depends on the nature of the business. Some business requires huge fixed capital and some need little fixed capital depending on their operations. The need for fixed capital will be more as the concern need to invest on fixed assets like plant, machinery & Buildings etc.

Scale of operation: The scale of operation is the other important determinant of fixed capital requirement of a business. Larger the size and the scale of operations, the greater will be the amount of fixed capital requirement.

Question 7.
What is financial planning?
Answer:
Financial planning is concern with the preparation of a financial blue print of an organization for future operations. Financial planning is the process of determining the objectives, polices, procedure and program to deal with the financial activities of an organization.

Question 8.
Write the difference between working capital & Fixed capital?
Answer:

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the importance of financial management.
Answer:
Estimating capital requirement: Financial Management makes the estimation of both short term & long term financial needs to make the smooth running of a business.

• Short Term Financial Needs: Refers to the financial requirement for a period within one year or financial required to meet day today expense.
• Long Term Financial Needs: Refers to the financial requirements for a period exceeding one year.

Capital budgeting: It refers to the long term funds. Capital can be raised in two ways either debts or Equity. Capital budgeting decides the composition of debt & equity in the long term finance of an organization.

Working capital marketing: Excess of current assets over current liabilities represents the working capital of an organization. To ensure the smooth working of an organization it should have sufficient working capital to meet the day to day needs.

Appraisal of financial performance & financial control: Financial Management provides various financials tools such as Ration analysis, Budgeting, Variance analysis. It helps the  management to control the financial activities of the organization.

Making financial decision: Financial Management is concerned with financial decisions relates to the composition of assets. Capital & Investment. Sound financial decisions are made depending on risk & return.

Solution to financial problem: A good financial management helps the top management by providing financial information and also solutions to various financial problems.

Communication of financial performance: It is used to measure profitability & liquidity of the business. The various stakeholders who are keen about the financial performance of the organization are Share holders, Creditors, Investors, Economists, Employees and Government.

Question 2.
What do you mean by financial decisions? Explain in brief the types of financial decisions?
Answer:
Financial decisions are concerned with how to raise the funds for business activities from various sources. There are two source of raising fiance to the business they are Debt and Equity. The owner fund or share holders fund are called equity. The harrowed funds are called debts.
The Financial Management decisions can be broadly classified into:
1. Investment decisions: Investment decisions are concerned with how firm’s funds are invested in different assets either long term or short term. The long term investment decisions are also called as Capital Budgeting Decision and the short term investment decisions are called as Working Capital Decisions.

2. Financing decision: Financing decisions are concerned with how to raise the funds for business activities from various sources. There are two source of raising finance to the business they are Debt and Equity. The owner fund or share holders fund are called equity. The harrowed funds are called debts

3. The dividend decision: Dividend decisions are concerned with the apportionment of the firm’s profit. Dividends are the portions of the profit which will be distributed to the share holders. The portion of profit which is undistributed to the share holders are called as retained earnings which will be utilized for expansion and development of the business.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the importance of financial planning.
Answer:
Financial planning is concern with the preparation of a financial blue print of an organization’s for future operations. Financial planning ensures that enough funds are available at the right time. Financial planning is the process of determining the objectives, polices, procedures to deal with the financial activities of an organization.
Importance of financial planning are:
1. Tool to face uncertainties: Financial planning is a tool to face uncertainties. It helps in forecasting different business situations and develop alternative financial plans to meet the different situations.

2. Ensures liquidity: Financial planning would ensure liquidity of funds throughout the year for meeting various financial commitments and there by create a confidence in the minds of the suppliers who provide funds to the organizations.

3. Ensures adequate funds: Financial planning avoids the situations of both surplus and shortage of funds. Financial planning estimates quantity of the funds required and time when it is required to ensure the optimum fund to achieve the company objective.

4. Elimination of waste: Good financial planning through proper policy and procedures contribute to the elimination of waste of funds and facilitates maximum utilization of the available resources. It also avoids complexity and lack of co ordination among various functions of an organization.

5. Better financial control: An effective financial planning predetermines the desired results and also helps to check the deviation and adopts corrective measure to achieve the desired goals of the organization.

Question 4.
Explain any five factors which may influence the amount of working capital requirements in a business.
Answer:
1. Nature of business: The amount of working capital requirement basically depends on the nature of the business. Due to the cash nature of the transactions in the business. Some business requires huge working capital and some need little working capital for their operations.

2. Scale of Operations: The requirement of working capital also depends up on the scale of operation. Small Scale operations needs less working capital when compared to large scale operations.

3. Growth & Expansion: As the organizations grows it requires a large amount of working capital in order to meet higher production and sales target. With the growth & expansion the business need more & more working capital to meet the day to day requirement of the organization

4. Business cycle: The amount of working capital required by a concern varies with the changes in the phases of business cycle. During Boom period the demand for the product increases and results in higher working capital requirement. On the other hand during recession and depression demand for the products decreases results in lower working capital requirements.

5. Seasonal factors: The working capital requirement also influenced by the seasonal fluctuation in demand for the products. During peak seasons, the working capital requirement in more due to higher level of activity. On the contrary during lean seasons the requirement of the working capital will be less.

Question 5.
Explain any five factors which may influence the amount of fixed capital requirements in a business?
Answer:
1. Nature of business: The amount of fixed capital requirement basically depends on the nature of the business. Some business requires huge fixed capital and some need little fixed capital depending on their operations. The need for fixed capital will be more as the concern need to invest on fixed assets like plant, machinery & Buildings etc.

2. Scale of operation: The scale of operation is the other important determinant of fixed capital requirement of a business. Larger the size and the scale of operations, the greater will be the amount of fixed capital requirement.

3. Growth & Expansion prospects: Higher growth of organization generally requires higher investment in fixed assets. As the organization as to create higher capacity’ in order to meet the higher demand Suffer

4. Choice of technique of production: An organization may be capital intensive or labor intensive. A capital intensive organization requires higher investment in plant and machinery when compared to labor intensive organization. Thus the requirement of fixed capital for capital intensive organization would be higher.

5. Method of fixed asset acquisition: Organizations purchasing fixed asset on cash basis requires a large amount of fixed capital. Those organizations which acquire fixed assets on hire purchase and installment system requires lesser amount of fixed capital.

Question 6.
Explain any five objectives of financial management.
Answer:
1. Profit maximization: profit can be maximized with proper utilization of organizations resource. The company should earn sufficient profit to reach its expenses, expansion & modification.

2. Wealth maximization: It means the maximization of the market value of shares. The market value of shares is related to three financial decision, viz., investment decision, financial decision, & Dividend decision.

3. Proper estimation of total requirement: It is very important to know the financial requirement to start & run the business. Estimating of financial requirement is done after considering factors such as scale of operation, technology, man power requirements etc.

4. Obtaining funds at minimum cost: The required fund can be mobilized through many sources such as shares, debentures, Bank loan etc. The finance manager must decide about difference & the balance between owned finance & borrowed finance. He must obtain the funds at minimum cost.

5. Proper utilization of finance: Finance must invest in profitable project and care should be taken to ensure that finance is not wasted due to investment in unprofitable project, blocking of finance in inventories & long period of credit.

2nd PUC Business Studies Financial Management Eight Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe different objectives of financial management.
Answer:
1. Profit maximization: profit can be maximized with proper utilization of organizations resource. The company should earn sufficient profit to melt its expenses, expansion & modification.

2. Wealth maximization: It means the maximization of the market value of shares. The market value of shares is related to three financial decision, viz., investment decision, financial decision, & Dividend decision.

3. Proper estimation of total requirement: It is very important o know the financial requirement to start & run the business. Estimating of financial requirement is done after considering factors such as scale of operation, technology, man power requirements etc.

4. Obtaining funds at minimum cost: The required fund can be mobilized through many sources such as shares, debentures, Bank loan etc. The finance manager must decide about difference & the balance between owned finance & borrowed finance. He must obtain the funds at minimum cost.

5. Proper utilization of finance: Finance must invest in profitable project and care should be taken to ensure that finance is not wasted due to investment in unprofitable project, blocking of finance in inventories & long period of credit.

6. Maintaining proper cash flow: An organization must have proper cash flow to pay its day-to-day expenses such as purchase of raw material, payment of wages & salaries, rent, electricity bills etc. Healthy Cash flow improves organizational success.

7. Risk minimization: Financial management tries to minimize the risk through creation of reserves to meet unforeseen contingencies. A portion of profits are always kept aside as reserve in order to utilize it for future growth and development.

8. Proper co-ordination: Financial Management works in combination with other areas like production, marketing, personnel etc. thus proper co-ordination with other departments is an important objective of financial management to achieve the organizational goals.

9. Financial control: Finance management should always plan the source of procuring funds & also the applications of funds. Deviation between the planned & actual inflow & outflow of funds should be studied; analyzed & corrective actions should be taken immediately.

10. Creation of goodwill: Financial management should try to create good will for the organization. Financial Management ensures good corporate governance. It will help to create confidence in the minds of the stake holders regarding the financial activities of the organization.

Question 2.
Explain the factors which may influence the amount of fixed capital requirement in a business.
Answer:
1. Nature of business: The amount of fixed capital requirement basically depends on the nature of the business. Some business requires huge fixed capital and some need little fixed capital depending on their operations. The need for fixed capital will be more as the concern need to invest on fixed assets like plant, machinery & Buildings etc.

2. Scale of operation: The scale of operation is the other important determinant of fixed capital requirement of a business. Larger the size and the scale of operations, the greater will be the amount of fixed capital requirement.

3. Growth & Expansion prospects: Higher growth of organization generally requires higher investment in fixed assets. As the organization as to create higher capacity’ in order to meet the higher demand.

4. Choice of technique of production: An organization may be capital intensive or labor intensive. A capital intensive organization requires higher investment in plant and machinery w’hen compared to labor intensive organization. Thus the requirement of fixed capital for capital intensive organization would be higher.

5. Method of fixed asset acquisition: Organizations purchasing fixed asset on cash basis requires a large amount of fixed capital. Those organizations which acquire fixed assets on hire purchase and installment system requires lesser amount of fixed capital.

6. Diversification: Diversification of production or operations is another important factor affecting fixed capital requirement. A concern which chooses to diversify its production requires more fixed capital.

7. Amount of promotion expenses: If a concern has to spend more amounts by way of promotion expenses, cost of raising finance etc then it requires more amount of fixed capital.

8. Level of collaboration: Collaboration refers to the business organizations which share the facilities to each other. It reduces the level of investment in fixed assets for the participating organizations. So the requirement of the fixed capital is less in a collaboration of business.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of financial management.
Answer:
1. Estimating capital requirement: Financial Management makes the estimation of both short term & long term financial needs to make the smooth running of a business.

• Short Term Financial Needs: Refers to the financial requirement for a period within one year or financial required to meet day today expense.
• Long Term Financial Needs: Refers to the financial requirements for a period exceeding one year.

2. Capital budgeting: It refers to the long term funds. Capital can be raised in two ways either debts or Equity’. Capital budgeting decides the composition of debt & equity in the long term finance of an organization.

3. Working capital marketing: Excess of current assets over current liabilities represents the working capital of an organization. To ensure the smooth working of an organization it should have sufficient working capital to meet the day to day needs.

4. Appraisal of financial performance & financial control: Financial Management provides various financials tools such as Ration analysis, Budgeting, Variance analysis. It helps the management to control the financial activities of the organization.

5. Making financial decision: Financial Management is concerned with financial decisions relates to the composition of assets. Capital & Investment. Sound financial decisions are made depending on risk & return.

6. Solution to financial problem: A good financial management helps the top management by providing financial information and also solutions to various financial problems.

7. Communication of financial performance: It is used to measure profitability & liquidity of the business. The various stakeholders who are keen about the financial performance of the organization are Share holders, Creditors, Investors, Economists, Employees and Government.

Question 4.
Explain the importance of financial planning.
Answer:
Tool to face uncertainties: Financial planning is a tool to face uncertainties. It helps in forecasting different business situations and develop alternative financial plans to meet the different situations.

Ensures liquidity: Financial planning would ensure liquidity of funds throughout the year for meeting various financial commitments and there by create a confidence in the minds of the suppliers who provide funds to the organizations.

Ensures adequate funds: Financial planning avoids the situations of both surplus and shortage of funds. Financial planning estimates quantity of the funds required and time when it is required to ensure the optimum fund to achieve the company objective.

Elimination of waste: Good financial planning through proper policy and procedures contribute to the elimination of waste of funds and facilitates maximum utilization of the available resources. It also avoids complexity and lack of co ordination among various functions of an organization.

Better financial control: An effective financial planning predetermines the desired results and also helps to check the deviation and adopts corrective measure to achieve the desired goals of the organization.

Optimum capital structure: Financial planning will contribute to optimum capital structure at minimum cost or it will fix the relative proportion of owned capital & borrowed funds.

Helps in co-ordination: Financial planning helps in coordinating various functions.

You can Download Chapter 11 Transport, Communication and Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 11 Transport, Communication and Trade

2nd PUC Geography Transport, Communication and Trade One Mark Questions with Answers

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each:

Question 1.
What is Transportation?
Answer:
Transportation refers to the system of carrying persons and goods from one place to another
place.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Communication?
Answer:
Communication refers to exchange of ideas, messages, information from one person to another person.

Question 3.
Which road is at highest altitude in the World?
Answer:
The world’s highest road is Manali -Leh road in the Western Himalayas. It is at an altitude of 4,270 meters.

Question 4.
What is Trade?
Answer:
The process of buying and selling of goods and commadities is called trade.

Question 5.
What is Radio?
Answer:
It is one of the means of communication which sends the information of National and International news, sports, cricket and other kinds of information, etc.

Question 6.
What is Television?
Answer:
An electronic device that receives television signals and displays them on a screen.

Question 7.
Define Port.
Answer:
A Port is defined as a place of navigable water where ships can shelter for load and unload.

Question 8.
On which river bank Kolkata Port is located?.
Answer:
On the Hoogly river 148 km from the sea.

Question 9.
Name the Satellite launched in November 2013.
Answer:
‘Mangalyann” was launched on 5 November 2013.

Question 10.
Which is the Head quater of Central Railways?
Answer:
Mumbai [CST]

Question 11.
What is Road transportation.
Answer:
The means of carrying goods and passengers through the motor vehicles from one place to another place.

Question 12.
Expand PMGSY.
Answer:
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).

Question 13.
Which is the longest National highway in India.
Answer:
The longest National highway is NH-7 from Varanasi to Kanyakumari (2344) km.

Question 14.
Which is first railway line laid in India.
Answer:
The first railway line in India was from Bombay (VT) to Thane a distance of 34 km.

Question 15.
What is the total railway length of India.
Answer:
64,460 km.

Question 16.
Expand CORE.
Answer:
The central organisation for railway electrification (CORE).

Question 17.
Which is first pipe line in India.
Answer:
India’s first pipeline-Naharkatia to Baruni.

Question 18.
Which is the longest pipeline in India.
Answer:
The Hazira-Bijaipur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) Gas pipeline is one of the longest pipeline of the country (1750 km). ‘

Question 19.
Which is the Milk pipeline in India.
Answer:
A milk pipeline: It is from the Anand dairy to Ahmedabad in Gujarath.

Question 20.
Which is longest inland water way in India.
Answer:
National water way no -1 from Kolkata to Patna through Gahga and its tributaries with a distance of 2510 km.

Question 21.
Which port is known as Gateway of India.
Answer:
“Mumbai port” is known as Gateway of India.

Question 22.
Name the airports which are called Green Airports of India?
Answer:
Kempegowda International Airport of Bangalore and Hyderabad Airport are called Green Airports of India.

Question 23.
Name the place of first air travelling facility was started in India and when?
Answer:
From Bangalore to Hyderabad by “Deccan Airways” in the year 1946.

Question 24.
Name the first newspaper in India and who introduced it.
Answer:
The newspaper named “Samachar Darpan” introduced by ‘Hicky’s Gazette’ in the year – 1779.

Question 25.
When the first Radio programme was broad casted and where?
Answer:
In the year – 1923 at a place called “Club of Mumbai”.

Question 26.
Which is world’s first artificial Satellite and from where it was launched.
Answer:
“Sputnik-I’, It was launched by the Soviet Union in 1957.

Question 27.
Expand NRSA.
Answer:
National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA).

2nd PUC Geography Transport, Communication and Trade Two Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Mention the 3 important Railways gauges?
Answer:

1. Broad-Gauge
2. Metre – Gauge
3. Narrow – Gauge.

Question 2.
Mention any 4 railway zones with their headquarters?
Answer:

1. CentralRailway – Mumbai (CST)
2. Western Railway – Mumbai (Church gate)
3. Southern Railway – Chennai
4. Eastern Railway – Kolkata.

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of Radio?
Answer:

• Radio reaches both to the literate and illiterate as well as to people of all ages.
• It creates awakening among the people about the world
• It provides educative value
• The production costs are lower.

Question 4.
Mention the main advantages of Television.
Answer:

• Television educates millions of people through advertisement.
• It is a source of entertainment.
• It makes a personal appeal and transmits the message directly into the home.
• News in different part of the world can be seen within minutes or even seconds.

Question 5.
State two types of Waterways.
Answer:

1. Inland water transport
2. Ocean transport.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Internal and International airport of India.
Answer:
Internal Airport: The Airways which carries passengers, cargo and mail to different regions of the country and neighbouring countries.
International Airport: The Airways which carries the foreign traffic of passengers and cargo between the countries.

Question 7.
Differentiate between Export and Import trade of India.
Answer:
Export trade of India: Refers to the sale of goods and services by India to other countries of
the world.
Import trade of India: Refers to the buying goods from foreign countries and bringing them to home country.

Question 8.
Mention the four types of roads in India.
Answer:

1. National Highways
2. State Highways
3. District roads and
4. Village roads

Question 9.
State the significance of Air transport in India?
Answer:

• It is very efficient means for speedy transport of people, mail and goods.
• It is very essential on times of peace as well as during emergencies.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Mission Mangalyaan.
Answer:

• The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) informely called Mangalyaan (Sanskrit name for Mars craft) is a mars orbiter launched into Earth orbit.
• On 5^th Nov 2013 by (Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) (8) (9) (10) (11).
• It is expected to enter orbit around Mars on 24 Sep 2014.
• The mission is a technology demonstrator project aiming to develop the technologies required for design, planning, management and operation of a Inter planatery mission.

Question 11.
Write any four advantages of Road ways.
Answer:

1. Road ways are more flexible, fast, reliable which is capable of providing door to door service.
2. It provides employment opportunities.
3. It plays a vital role in national and international security.
4. In hilly area, roads are the only means of effective transport.

Question 12.
Mention the types of Nagpur Plan road development in India.
Answer:
Nagpur plan has classified the road into 4 categories :

1. National highways
2. State highways
3. District roads and
4. Village roads.

Question 13.
Mention the four disadvantages of the railways in India.
Answer:

1. The total mileage is still very small considering Indias large area and population.
2. Unequal distribution of railway in the country.
3. There is an unhealthy competition between the roads and railways.
4. Multi-gauges cause inconvenience for transhipment of goods and passengers.

Question 14.
Mention the important international airports of India.
Answer:

• Sahara – Mumbai
• Indira Gandhi International – Delhi
• Subash Chandra Bose – Kolkata
• Anna – Chennai
• Kempegowda international airport – Bangalore
• Rajiv Gandhi international airport – Hyderabad.

Question 15.
Write the advantages of newspaper.
Answer:

• They are available for low cost
• They provide all types of information regarding science and technology, news, articles etc.
• Large number of people can read them.
• They provide a accurate information from different sources.

Question 16.
Which is the wonder box of 20th century, who invented colour TV and when.
Answer:
‘Television’ is described as the ‘Wonder box’ of 20th century. The first colour television was invented by Hungarian born ‘American Peter Gold Mark in 1940.

2nd PUC Geography Transport, Communication and Trade Five Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Explain the National Highways of India.
Answer:
National Highways : They connect the capitals of the states, Industrial centres and major parts. They are well planned wide roads with two-lane, four-lane and six-lane roads.

• Construction and maintainance is done by the Central Government and National Highways Authority (NHAI).
  The total length of the National Highway is about 71,772 km in 2011. They constitute only 2% of the length but they carry over 45% of the road traffic:
• The number of National Highways in the country is 235.

Under the National Highways Authority of India, about 14,297 km length of National high way is proposed to be upgraded to four or six lanes in two phases.

* It consists of the following components :

• The Golden Quadrilateral
• The North-South and East-West corridors
• Port connectivity and other projects.

1. The Golden Quadrilateral super Highways Kolkata, Chennai-Mumbai and by six-lane super highway. It has a total length of 5846 kms.

2. East-West corridor :- This project has extended from the North-South corridor linking
between Srinagar (J.K) and Kanyakumari (T.N) and East-West corriders connecting between Silcher (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). The project has a total length of about 7300 km.

3. Port connectivity project:-This project, connect golden quadrilateral roads with 3 major ports (380 km) and other projects (962 km) is in progress.
The longest National Highway is NH-7 from Varanasi to Kanyakumari (2344 km).

Question 2.
Explain the development of Railways in India.
Answer:

• The first railway line in India was from Bombay (V.T) to Thane, a distance of 34 km, opened on 16th April, 1853.
• It was followed by a railway line in 1856, from Madras to Arkonam (70 km).
•  Railway line in 1874 from Kolkata to Raniganj (180 km).
• Then gradually railway lines were constructed to link different parts of the country.
• At the time of Independence, the length of the railway line was 54,96 km.
• During post-Independence period, because of the Five year plans, the Indian railway has recorded spectacular progress.
• There were 43 steam, 4,963 diesel and 3585 electric locomotives 55,065 coaches 2,11,763 wagons.
• The trains moved everyday through more than 7,030 stations.
• On an average they carried 17 million passengers and 2.8 million lakh tones of freight everyday.
• At present all the rail operations in India are managed by Ministry of Indian railways.
• The country’s railways is about 64,460 km of length which is fourth largest railway network in the world and first in Asia.
• It has transported 7651 million passengers and 921 million tonnes of frieght annually.
• The Network operates 28 states and 3 union territories.

Question 3.
Explain pipelines transport with advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:

• It is most convenient, efficient and cheap mode of transporting products like crude oil and refined products, gas, water and milk.
• At present solid materials are also transported through pipeline after converting them into slurry. .

Advantages of Pipelines :

• Pipelines can be laid through difficult terrain and also through water.
• The initial cost of laying the pipelines is high but the subsequent cost of maintainence and operation is low.
• Pipelines ensure a steady supply and minimizes trans-shipment losses and delays.
• Pipelines operation involves very low consumption of energy and keeps the environment free from pollution.
• Pipeline regions unites industrial regions.

Disadvantages:

• The capacity of pipelines cannot be increased once they are laid.
• The security of pipelines in certain areas and the detection of leakage are difficult.
• The construction of pipelines are expensive.

Question 4.
Explain any two major parts of West coast of India.
Answer:
The major ports located in the west coast of India are (a) Kandla (b) Mumbai.

1. Kandla : It is a tidal port located at Eastern end of Gulf of Kachchh (Gujarat).

• It has a natural harbour and has a vast hinterland, rich in agriculture and animal husbandary.
• Its main exports consists of leather, petroleum products, chemicals, salt, cement, cotton and silk textiles and edible oils.
• The imports include crude oil, potash, fertilizers, machines and synthetic rubber.

2. Mumbai: Mumbai is the biggest, most spacious, natural, well shelter, and capital of the Maharashtra state.

• The port is situated towards the eastern side of Mumbai island which runs in a north-east to south-east direction. ‘
• The length of this port is 20kms and width is 6-10 kms.
• There are 54 berths in its wet dock. This port has become India’s largest oil terminal.
• It has rich hinterland.
• Important items of imports are foodgrains, crude oil, machinery, chemicals, fertilizers ore.

Question 5.
Explain the air transportation of India.
Answer:

• Air transport is the transportation of goods and passengers by means of aeroplane and helicopters.
• It is very efficient means for speedy transport of people, mail & goods.
• It is very essential in times of peace as well as during emergencies.
• The first air travelling facility was started in India between Bangalore and Hyderabad by “Deccan Airways” in the year 1946.
• Indian Airways was nationalized in the year 1953.
• In the year 1996 state airport of Bangalore was declared as an International Airport.

Civil Aviation :- Air transport used for commercial purpose is called civil Aviation.
There are two types of air transport in India namely:

1. The Indian Airlines Corporation to operate internal routes.
2. Air India International to operate on external routes.

1. The Indian Airlines Corporation :

• Carries passengers cargo and mail to different regions of the country.
• It operates from 55 domestic stations and provides air service to remote areas.
• At present the Indian Airlines Corporation has more than 70 aircrafts.
• It connects all the important places in India & neighbouring countries namely Pakistan,
  Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Mynmar and Srilanka.

2. The Air India :

• It carries foreign traffic of passengers and cargo.
• It was established in 1953. –
• It provides services to 97 destinations outside the country.
• It operates 59 stations of which 16 are domestic and 25 international.
• Air India own a fleet of 22 aircrafts.

Question 6.
Briefly explain the importance of satellite communication.
Answer:
Importance^of satellites: Satellites are important to us in many ways.

• They provide us with radio and cable television.
• They allow us to make cellular phone calls from long distances.
• They provide us with a global positioning system (GPS).
• They circle the earth and relay weather conditions and forecasts.
• The government uses them to spy on other countries in order to protect us.
• They are used for space research, which includes sotto satellites that observe the sun and provide us with early warnings of upcoming solar flakes. These solar flakes have been known to knock out various satellite communication links, which allow us to use our credit cards and to use beepers.
• Satellite monitor crops.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Satellite?
Answer:
A satellite can be defined as a body that orbits the earth or other planet which has been sent from the Earth into space theses are of vital importance to life on earth.

• The 20th century is also known as space age. With the advancement in science and technology artificial satellites has marked a new era in the history of global telecommunication.
• The Geo-stationary satellites are positioned at a height of about 36,000 km in the sky.
• Radio and Television networking over entire India are done through satellite technology. So, it is popularly called as ‘space age communication technique’.
• he world’s first artificial satellite, the sputnik. I was launched by the soviet union in 1957.
• Very recently India has launched a satellite IRS P-2 into the orbit successfully from the country’s space port at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
• Satellite construction and launching is canied out as a part of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). The ISRO centre is located at Bangalore, the satellite launching centres are located near Hassan in Karnataka.
• National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) Hyderabad is responsible for reception, processing of data from remote sensing satellites.

Question 8.
Explain Imports and Exports of India.
Answer:
Imports of India : Imports trade of India refers to buying goods from foreign countries and bringing them to home country.
The main items of Imports of India are :

1. Petroleum crude and products :

• It is the most important materials of Indian.Imports.
• In 2006-2007 India imported rupees 2,58,572 crores worth of crude oil and other petroleum products.
• It contributed 23% of our total imports.

2. Pearls precious and semi precious stones :
India imported rupees 33,881 crores worth of precious stone.

3. Capital goods :
In 2006-2007 India imported rupees 2,51,136 crores worth of capital goods.

4. Fertilizers :
India is a major importer of chemical Fertilizers. It is because the country is agrarian and the Internal production of fertilizers is insufficient. Potash fertilizers are largely imported.

Exports of India : Export trade of India refers to the sale of goods and services by India to other countries of the world.

The main items of our exports are as follows :

• Agricultural and Allied products: Products such as cereals, pulses tobacco, spices, nuts and seeds, oil meals, caster oil etc.
  During 2011-2012 exports income is about US dollar 13300.63 million.
• Ores and minerals: Export of ores and minerals like Iron ore, Manganese, Micca was estimated at US dollar 4700.29 million during 2011-12.
• Gems and Jewellery: India imports gems and precious stones in their raw form and . exports them after proper cutting and polishing.
• Electronic goods: Items under this group of consists of machinery, iron, steel and other engineering items.
• Petroleum products: Export of petroleum products increased to US dollar 34667.02 million.

Question 9.
Explain the composition and direction of India foreign trade.
Answer:
Composition of Export: Composition of exports refers to the goods that are exported from India to foreign countries.
The export of India may be classified into three types :

1. Primary commodities
2. Manufacturing goods
3. Services.

Direction of India’s exports:

• India’s export of goods to other countries have been increasing significantly since independence.
• Nearly 54% of our exports are made to Asia and other oceanic countries.
• European regions are importing about 21:6% and Americans are importing about 15%.

Composition of India’s Imports:

• Composition of India’s import refers to the various types of goods that are imported from foreign countries to India.
• Today India imports several items like fertilizers, petroleum, crude products and capital goods, organic, chemicals, gold and silver.

Direction of India’s Imports:

• In the beginning India was importing only from few countries including Britain. Now the country is importing from several countries like USA, West Europe, Russia, West Asia.
• India is depending on different countries for different goods. India imports capital goods from Japan, Britain, France and Russia, whereas food products are imported from America and Crude oil from OPEC countries.

Question 10.
Explain the important inland waterways in India.
Answer:

• The gangas with its tributaries forms the most important inland waterways in India. It is navigable from Kolkata to Patna. It has been declared as the national water way no-1 in 1986. Its length is 2510 km.
• The Brahmaputra is the second important navigable river next to the Gangas. It is navigable from Kolkata to Dibrugh (1280) km. The water way between Satiya and Dhubri (891) km in Assam was declared as a National waterways no-2.
• River of south India are not suitable for navigation. However the deltaic parts of the Godavari (300) km. The Krishna (60 km) and the Mahanadi are useful for.navigation.
• There are some navigable canals, which serve as inland waterways the Buckingham canal (418 km) along the east cost of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is the longest navigable canal. The Kurnool cuddapah canal in Andhra Pradesh and the some canal in Bihar are also used for inland navigation! ,
• The backwaters and lagoons of Kerala are used for navigation. ‘

Question 11.
Describe the Radio as a communication Media in India.
Answer:
Radio has played an important means of communication in the field of advertising, information, broadcasting local, regional, public opinions, national and international news, sports, cricket etc.

• Radio is more powerful than the press because it gives immediate information throughout the world without loss of time. Radio broadcasting was started in India in the early 1920’s.
• The first programme was broadcasted in 1923 by radio club of Mumbai. The broadcasting service was setup in 1927.
• It was changed to all India Radio (AIR) in 1936. It also came to be known as “Akashvani” from 1957.
• The All India radio has at present 213 Radio stations these includes 114 regional stations, 77 local stations 14 relay centers.

Advantages:

• Radio reaches both to the literate and illiterate as well as to people of all ages.
• It creates awakening among the people about the worls.
• It provides educated values.
• The productions costs are lower.
• Radio is the only mass media that people use while driving, cleaning, moving etc.

Disadvantages:

• Radio is brief, It cannot be very descriptive.
• Its scope is limited.
• It is one way communication.
• It is confined to the control of government.

Question 12.
Briefly explain about the television in India.
Answer:
An electronic device that receives television signals and displays them on a screen.

• Television can offer video clips of events that show the audience what happened in the accompanying story.
• The television coverage covers events at all times of the day.
• Television broadcasting was first started by the government of India under the name of Doordarshan (DD) in Delhi on Sep – 1959.
• Today, Television coverage is provided by Doordarshan to about 90 percent of India’s population in India.

Advantages:

• It is the most effective medium to deliver information to large number of people very quickly.
• News in different part of the world can be seen with in minutes or even seconds.
• Television educates millions of people through advertisement. ,
• It is a source of entertainment.
• It makes a personal appeal and transmits the message directly into the home.
• It exhibits the persons giving the message.

Disadvantages:

• It is a sort of time – consuming, people waste time in watching.
• Television is a health hazard to people, especially to children.
• Television also braodcasts some inappropriate programmes.
• It is very costly, so it can be used only to a limited extent.
• It requires lot of concentration, attention of the people.

You can Download Chapter 10 Manufacturing Industries Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 10 Manufacturing Industries

2nd PUC Geography Manufacturing Industries One Mark Questions with Answers

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each:

Question 1.
What is Manufacturing industry?
Answer:
The process involved in conversion of raw materials into finished goods is known as manufacturing industry.

Question 2.
Which industry is called as “Mother of all industries” or “basic industries”?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is called as “Mother of all industries” or “basic industries”.

Question 3.
Which city is called Jawa of India?
Answer:
The Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh is known as Jawa of India.

Question 4.
Name the important agro-based industries of India?
Answer:

• Cotton textile industries
• Sugar industries
• Jute industries.

Question 5.
What is Industrial region?
Answer:
A region which has a large concentration of different types of industries is known as industrial region.

Question 6.
Define knowledge-based industry?
Answer:
Utilization of skilled man power through the set of programmes is known as knowledge based industry.

Question 7.
Which city of India is known as Silicon valley?
Answer:
Bangalore is called the Silicon valley of India.

Question 8.
Name of the first Naptha-based chemical industry in India?
Answer:
The National organic chemical industrial limited [NOCIL] was the first Naptha based chemical industry at mumbai in India.

Question 9.
Mention the biggest industrial region of India?
Answer:
Mumbai – Pune region.

Question 10.
What are the mineral based industry?
Answer:
The group of industries which are depending on mineral ores for the raw material purpose can be called as mineral industries for ex: iron and steel, aluminium, cement etc.

Question 11.
What are the Forest based industry?
Answer:
The group of industries which are depending on Forest products for the raw material purpose can be called as forest based industries.

Question 12.
Name the first large steel plant of the India?
Answer:
Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO). It is located at Jameshedpur of Jharkhand in 1907.

Question 13.
What is Soil?
Answer:
The Steel Authority of India Ltd (Soil).

Question 14.
Which is called the Manchester of South India.
Answer:
Coimbatore – in Tamilnadu.

Question 15.
Which state is the largest producer of cement in India.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 16.
Name the first Aluminium industry in India.
Answer:
Jayakanagar near Asansol in West bengal in 1942.

Question 17.
In which year was STPI established in India.
Answer:
Software Technology park of India (STPI) was established in 1995.

Question 18.
Expand LPG.
Answer:
“Liberalization Privatization, and Globalization.

Question 19.
What is Economic globalization.
Answer:
It is an arrangement for the production exchange distribution and consumption of goods and services.

2nd PUC Geography Manufacturing Industries Two Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between Pure and impure raw materials? Give example?
Answer:
The raw materials which looses much of their weight when they are processed in the industry are called ‘impure materials’.
Some of the raw materials do not loose their weight in the process of manufacturing. They are called Pure materials for ex : Cotton.

Question 2.
Why the Mumbai is known as “Machester of India”?
Answer:
Mumbai is the leading cotton textile center of India. So it is known as “Manchester of India”.

Question 3.
Mention the importance of aluminium?
Answer:

• Alluminium is the most widely used metal.
• Its large ranges from manufacturing of small spoon to air craft’s.
• It has special value in the manufacturing of transport equipment. Such as aircraft, railways, automobiles etc.
• It is used in the paints.

Question 4.
States the future of computer software in India?
Answer:

• Computer software is one of the important source of foreign exchange earnings.
• It is a major field of employment opportunities.
• There is a clear imbalance between demand and people.
• This sector offers many opportunities for the supply.

Question 5.
Why automobiles Industry is tends to be located near Iron and Steel industry?
Answer:
The automobiles industry is tends to be located near Iron and Steel industry because steel is the basic raw materials used in the automobiles industry.

Question 6.
Cotton textile industry is known as Marketing – oriented industry, why?
Answer:
Due to easy transportation of raw cotton, the industries are established near the market areas they are known as market oriented industry.

Question 7.
Mention the uses of by-products of Sugar?
Answer:
The by-products of sugar such as Bagasse and Molasses are very useful. They are

• The major raw materials of paper and alcoholic industries.
• These are also supports plaramaceuticals and cardboard manufacturing bakery and confectionery.

Question 8.
Name any three steel plants being under the Private Sector?
Answer:

1. Jindal Vijaynagar Steel Ltd (J V S L)
2. Essar Steel Ltd (E S L)
3. Ispat Industries Ltd (I I L).

Question 9.
Why Iron and Steel industry is called.raw material oriented?
Answer:
To minimize the transportation cost of the Iron ore, the industries are. established nearest to the availability of raw materials itself it is called as raw material oriented industry.

Question 10.
Mention the four advantages of industries.
Answer:

• Industries helps in removing poverty and unemployment. ‘
• The economic strength of a country is judged by the develcfpment of its industries.
• It contributes about 78 percent of our foreign exchange earning.
• Industries involve from the making of Machines etjuipement and tools for the automobiles, ships, aircrafts etc.

Question 11.
Write the four important characteristics of industrial region.
Answer:

• Large urban population and labour supply
• Efficient network of transport, and communications
• Wide and nearby market facilities and
• Excellent banking and other financial facilities.

Question 12.
Mention the four important advantages of the Hoogly-Kolkata region?
Answer:

1. A rich winterland of the Ganga ah(l Brahmaputra plains
2. Availability of raw materials like jute, cotton, tea, minerals etc.
3. Cheap labour from Bihar and Odisha
4. Availability of vast market in and around Kolkata.

Question 13.
What are the raw materials of the cement industry?
Answer:
Lime stone, sea shalls, slag, silica alumina, clay and gypsum are the raw materials used in the cement industry.

Question 14.
Mention the important Aluminium companies in India.
Answer:

• Hindustan Aluminium Company (HINDAICO)
• Indian Aluminium Company (INDALCO)
• National Aluminium Company (NALCO)
• Bharath Aluminium Company (BALCO)
• Madras, Aluminium Company (MALCO).

Question 15.
What are the petrochemical organization in India?
Answer:

• Indian petrochemical corporation limited (IPCL)
• Petrofils co-operative limited (PCL)
• Central Institute of Plastics Engineering and Technology (CIPET).

Question 16.
Mention the four popular commercial vehicle producers in India.
Answer:

• Tata Engineering and Locomotive Co. Ltd Andhra Pradesh
• Premier Automobiles and Mahendra & Mahendra in Mumbai
• Ashojka Leyland Ltd in Chennai and
• Hindustan Motors Ltd is at Kolkata.

Question 17.
Mention the major software and hardware producing companies in India.
Answer:

• M/s Altos
• HCL infosystems, Wipro
• Digital equipment (India)
• Zenith computers etc.

Question 18.
Write the objectives of Liberalization.
Answer:

• Abolition of industrial licensing
• Free entry to foreign technology
• Foreign investment policy
• Open trade.

Question 19.
What are the features of private investment.
Answer:

• The industrial policy has been liberalized to attract private investor both domestic and multinations.
• New sectors such as mining, telecommunication, highway construction and management are open to private companies.

2nd PUC Geography Manufacturing Industries Five Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the factors which influence on the location of the industries.
Answer:
Some important factors are:-

• Raw materials Industries are set up close to or in the regions where raw materials is available.
• Power Resources Power is essential for running the machinery of industries and influences much on the industrial location.
• Water supply Large quantities of water essential for the processing of raw materials or for cooling purposes. Therefore industries are usually localized near rivers or lakes.
• Climate:- Industries are influenced by climate. For example Cotton textile industry requires humid climate.
• Labour Cheap and efficient labour is required to work in the industries.
• MarketNearness to market is essential for quick marketing of manufactured goods.
• Transportation It is necessary to carry raw materials to the factories and to carry finished products to the markets as well.
• Capital Development of Industries requires large capital investment.
• Government:- Government must have favourable policies such as tax exemptions electricity and sites at concessional rates, subsidies, rail-link, improved roads etc.

Question 2.
Give an account of Iron and Steel Industry in India.
Answer:
Importance:

• The Iron and Steel industry is described as a basic Industry.
• Iron and Steel supplied by this industry such as machineries, irrigation projects, ship building, power projects, construction of bridges, buildings, transport equipment, machine tools and so on.
• The Production and Consumption of Iron and Steel is an index level of the economic develpoment of a country.

Distribution:
There are nine major Iron and Steel industries in India.

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), Jamshedpur :- It was established in 1907. It was the first largest steel plant of the country.
• Vishveswariah Iron and Steel Co. Ltd (VISL) Bhadravathi 11 was first established in 1923 by the princely state of Mysore located at Bhadravathi in Shimoga district of Karnataka.
• India Iron and Steel Company Ltd (IISCO) Bunpur:- It was established in 1919 at Bumpur in West Bengal. It was the second largest integrated steel plant after Tata Iron and Steel Ltd.
• Hindustan Steel Company Ltd, Rourkela :- It was completed with the German collaboration. The steel plant was commissioned in 1955.
• Bhilai Steel Plant :- It has the largest steel production plant of the public sector. It is located at Bilai near Raipur in Chhatisgarh.
• Durgapur Steel Plant :- The steel plant in Durgapur in West Bengal was established with British collaboration and was commissioned in 1956.
• Salem Steel Plant:- It is located at Salem in TamilNadu and the production was started from 1982.
• Vishakapatnam Steel Plant :- Established by National Ispat Nigam Ltd in Andhra Pradesh.
• New Steel Plants Some private sectors plants are.
• Jindal Vijaynagar Steel Ltd (JVSL) This steel plant is located at Tomagal, Bellary district in Karnataka.
• Essar Steel Ltd (ESL) It is situated at Hazira in Gujarat.
• Ispat Industries Ltd (IIL) It is situated at Dovi, Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra.
• Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd (NINL)It is a new steel plant located at Dubai, Odisha.
• Mini Steel Plants Presently, 199 lincensed electric ore furnace units with an installed capacity of 7.8 million tonnes have been commissioned and hence started commercial production.

Question 3.
Discuss the significance and distribution of sofware industries in India.
Answer:
Significance : Computer software industry in India are :

• The Aptitude of Indians for mathematics.
• Another reason may be the cost advantage of production in India.
  Global software firms are attracted to India’s large, skilled labour force.
• It has the second largest number of English speaking scientific professionals in the world, after the U.S.
• The Indian software industry focuses more on management information and decisions support systems, banking, insurance and financial applications, artificial intelligence etc.

Distribution :

• The major software and hardware producing companies include M/s Altos, HCL, Infosystems, Wipro, Digital Equipment (India), Zenith Computers, Tata Honey well, Unicorp Industries, Eseda Industries, Infosys, BEL software, PSI Data are global software firms having manufacturing base in India.
• Among the states of India Karnataka, particularly Bengaluru is the most important destination of Indian software industry so it is called Silicon Valley of India.
• In addition to Bengaluru software industries are also, developing in many centres of Karnataka such as Mysore, Mangalore, Udupi, Hubli etc.

Question 4.
Describe the production and distribution of Petro-chemical industries in India.
Answer:
Distribution: Mumbai is the hub of Petrochemical industries. Other units are located in Auraiya (Uttar Pradesh), Gandhara, Hazira(Gujarat), Nagothare, Ratnagiri (Maharashtra), Haldia (West Bengal) and Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh).
Three organizations are working in the petrochemical sector such as:

1. Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL).
2. Petrofils Cooperative limited (PCL)
3. Central Institute of Plastics Engineering and Technology (CIPET).
   • Synthetic Fibres Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yams are located at Kota, Pimpri, Mumbai, Modinagar, Pune.
   • Polymers:- Polymers are made from Ethylene and Propylene.

Production :

• The National Organic Chemical Industrial Limited (NOCIL) was the first naphta based Chemical Industry at Mumbai.
• Other major producers of plastic materials are Mumbai, Barauni, Mettur, Pimpri and Rishra.
• The present installed capaycity of these units is of the order 6-7 MT. The industry has an annual growth rate of 15 percent and employs three million people directly.
• The industry process about 3.6 MT of prime or virgin polymers and 1.4 MT.

Question 5.
Write the importance of knowledge – based industry and Explain briefly why these industries are located in major cities.
Answer:

Significance: Computer software industry in India are :

• The Aptitude of Indians for mathematics.
• Another reason may be the cost advantage of production in India.
  Global software firms are attracted to India’s large, skilled labour force.
• It has the second largest number of English speaking scientific professionals in the world, after the U.S.
• The Indian software industry focuses more on management information and decisions support systems, banking, insurance and financial applications, artificial intelligence etc.

Distribution :

• The major software and hardware producing companies include M/s Altos, HCL, Infosystems, Wipro, Digital Equipment (India), Zenith Computers, Tata Honey well, Unicorp Industries, Eseda Industries, Infosys, BEL software, PSI Data are global software firms having manufacturing base in India.
• Among the states of India Karnataka, particularly Bengaluru is the most important destination of Indian software industry so it is called Silicon Valley of India.
• In addition to Bengaluru software industries are also, developing in many centres of Karnataka such as Mysore, Mangalore, Udupi, Hubli etc.

Question 6.
Discuss the advantages of Mumbai – Pune Industrial region.
Answer:
It is located in Maharashtra. It is the biggest Industrial agglomeration in India. It includes Mumbai Metropolis and its many suburbs namely Kurla, Ghatkopar, Vile Parle, Jogeswari, Andheri, Thane.

Advantages:

• Early initiative of the British and the local Parsi and Baniya merchants.
• Mumbai port facilities.
• A good Network of transport by road and rail and good communications.
• Availability of Raw cotton.
• Development of hydro-electric power in the Western Ghats.
• Supply of cheap labour from the Konkan area.
• Availability of banking and financial facilities. ‘

A variety of industries are concentrated in this region. Cotton textile industry is well developed here. The other industries are woolen and skill textiles, synthetic fibres, chemicals, vanaspathi, soap, rubber, plastic, oil refining, sugar, cement, pharamaceuticals, cars, automobiles, bicycles etc.

Question 7.
Sugar Industry of India is moving southwards. Give reasons.
Answer:
In the recent years, there is remarkable change in the development of sugar industry. The sugar industry has developed more in the southern states, namely Maharashtra, TamilNadu, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It is described as the geographical redistribution of sugar

The geographical shift is due to :

• The Southern states located in the tropical region are highly suitable for sugarcane cultivation.
• The yeild of sugarcane in these states is much higher than the Northern states.
• Extension of irrigation in the southern states has brought large tracts under sugarcane cultivation. It has favoured the establishment of many sugar industries.
• Being located in the tropical region, sugarcane ripening period and crushing period.
• Supply of hydro-electricity, transport and market facilities.

Question 8.
What are the effects of Globalization?’
Answer:
There are Positive effects and Negative effects:
1. Positive effects: Industry has brought in huge amount of foreign investments into the industry & they has boosted the economy quite significantly.

• This has helped to provide employment to many people in the country.
• This has helped to make the Indian Industry more technologically advanced.
• It helps to reduce poverty in the country.

2. Negative effects :

• The Negative effects of globalization on Indian industry are that it is increased computation in the Indian market between the foreign companies and domestic companies.
• The foreign goods being better than the Indian goods, the consumer preffered to by the foreign goods. This reduced the amount of profit of the Indian industry companies.
• Its effects are more on pharmaceutical, manufacturing, chemical & the steel industries.
• The coming up technology the number of labour requried decreased and this resulted in many people being removed from their jobs. ‘

Question 9.
Give an account of automobile industry in India.
Answer:
The term “Automobile” is applied to any self-propelled vehicle powered by an Internal combustion engine & designed to transport passengers and goods over roads and highways.

Development :

• At present, India has above 40 million passenger vehicles.
• More than 3.7 million Automotive vehicles are produced annually, making the country the second fastest growing automobile market in the world after China.
• According to the society of Indian automobile manufacturers, annual vehicles sales are projected to increase to 4 million by 2015.

Location Factors:
The main factors favour the growth of automobiles industry are:

• Large supply of Iron & Steel, wood, glass, aluminium and fuels.
• Highly skilled labour.
• High degree of scientific and engineering skill.
• Large amount of capital.
• A large home market.

Distribution :

• Mumbai, Chennai, Jamshedpur, Jabalpur and Kolkata are the chief centres of automobile Industry.
• These centres produce almost all sorts of vehicles including trucks, buses, passengers, three wheelers and two wheelers.
• Motor cycles are also manufactured at Faridabad and Mysore.
• Scooters are also manufactured at Lucknow, Satara, Pune, Kanpur & Odhav (Ahmedabad district).

Production :

• In 2012-13, Automobile industry of India produced 20.6 million vehicles.
• India is the largest producer of two wheelers.

Question 10.
Mention the importance of cement industry development in India.
Answer:
Importance: The ‘Cement’ is the name given to the mixture of limestone, clay, silica and gypsum. This is essential for all types of construction activities.

• Cement is essential for the development of all types of infrastructure facilities such as roads, bridge, dams, buldings canals etc. .
• The production and consumption of cement is an indicator of the progress of a nation.
• It is the fundamental requirement for the development of major economic sectors such as agriculture, industry, transportation, trade etc.
• India is not olny one of the major cement producing countries of the world, at the same time, it is one of the largest cement consumer as well as exporter.

Development: The first cement plant was established by South Indian Industries at Ranipet near Chennai in 1904.

• During 1914-16 two more cement plants were established at Katni in Madhya Pradesh & Lakheri of Rajasthan.
• In 1934, 10 out of 11 existing companies merged together & established Associated Cement Company Ltd., (ACC) by 1947.
• At present (2010) there are 153 large cement plants with a total production of 219.51 million tonnes. Besides the country have more than 99 mini cement plants with an installed capacity’ of 11.10 mmt.
• It the last three decades the country has emerged as the second largest cement producing country of the world.

Question 11.
Explain the importance and distribution of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:
Importance:

•  It provides employment to over 35 million people in the mills, power looms and hand loom sector.
• Indirectly millions of people derives livelihood in cotton production, processing trade, garments and also in the textile machinery sectors.
• It is the most important sector of employment in the country next to agriculture.
• The export of cotton textiles contributes about 17 percent Our total export earnings etc.

Distribution of cotton textile industries:

• Maharashtra: It is the largest producer of cotton textile in the country. It produces 39.38 percent mill cloth and 1079 percent yam of India. It has 169 mills – these are located at Mumbai, Pune, Sangli, Nagpur, Sholapur etc It is called ‘Manchester of India’ and the cottonopolice of India.
• Gujarath: It is second largest producer of cotton in the country. It has 120 cotton mills which are located in Ahmadabad, Baroda, Rajkot, Bhuvanger, Surat etc.
• Tamilnadu: It has highest number of textile industries in the country . They are about 893 mills on the state they are found in Coimbatore, Madurai, Salem, Tirpur etc. Coimbatore is the most important center with 323 cotton mills. It is called the ‘Manchester of South India’.
• Karnataka: There are about 54 industries which are located at Davanagere, Hubli, Bellary, Gokak, Mysore, Bengaluru etc Davanagere is the chief center cotton textile in Karnataka.
• Uttar Pradesh : Kanpur is the chief center of cotton mills in Uttar pradesh. Other important centers are Agra, Bareily, Aligarh, Moradabad, Varanasi etc.
• Madhya Pradesh: There are 52 cotton textile industries in the state. They are located at Indore, Gwalior, Ujjain, Bhopal and Jabalpur.
• West Bengal: The industries are elargely found in Kolkata Howrah.
• Others : In Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh etc.

Question 12.
Describe the Production and Distribution of aluminium industries in India.
Answer:
Distribution: Distribution of aluminium industries in India is closely related to the availability of cheap electricity and bauxite.
The country has 9 major aluminium plants:-

1. Jayakanagar in West bengal
2. Alupuram in Kerala
3. Mettur in Tamilnadu
4. Belagum in Kamataka
5. Hirakudand
6. Darnanjodi in Odish
7. Renukut in U.P
8. Korba in Chatiisgarh and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra.

These are functioning under five producers namely:

• Hindustan Aluminium Company (HINDAICO) Renukut in Uttar Pradesh.
• Indian Aluminium Company (INDALCO).
• National Aluminium Company (NALCO) at Angul, Denkenel district of Odisha.
• Bharath Aluminium Company (BALCO) at Korba, Korba District of Chattisgarh.
• Madras Aluminium Company (MALCO) at Mettur, Mettur district of Tamilnadu.
• Vedanta Alumninium Ltd at Jharsuguda in Odisha.

Production :

• India produces only 3.4 percent of the tonnes of Aluminium in 2001 -02. It has increased to 16.3 lakh tones ‘ in2010-ll.
• Now India is 6th largest producer of aluminium and 3rd largest producer of alumina.
• Most of the output is consumed to meet the domestic demand. So, India imports aluminium and its products.

Question 13.
Explain the major features of Globalization,
Answer:
Major features of Globalization are as follows:

• Globalization means integrating the economy of the country with the world economy.
• Goods and services along with capital, labour and resources can move freely from one nation to another.
• The thrust of globalization has been to increase to domestic and external competition.

In India contect, this implies:

• Opening of the economy to foreign direct investment.
• Removing restrictions and obstacles to the entry of Multinational companies in India.
• Allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaboration.
• Carrying out massive import by liberlization programs.
• Bringing down the level of import duties considerably.
• Instead of a set of export incentives, opting for exchange rate adjustments for promoting export.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 8 Controlling

You can Download Chapter 8 Controlling Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Text Book Exercises

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
An efficient control system (helps to)
(a) accomplishes organisational objectives
(b) boosts employee morals
(c) judges accuracy of standards
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) Efficient control system helps to accomplish objectives, boosts employee morals, judges accuracy of standards and analyses deviations.

Question 2.
Controlling function of an organisation is
(a) forward looking
(b) backward looking
(c) forward as well as backward looking
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Controlling is forward looking because it does not end only by comparing past performance with standards. Controlling is backward looking because it postmortems all past activities to set future standards. Thus, controlling is both forward as well as backward looking.

Question 3.
Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of
(a) company
(b) management of the company
(c) shareholders
(d) customers.
Answer:
(b) The purpose of management audit is to review the efficiency and effectiveness of management of the company.

Question 4.
Budgetary control requires the preparation of
(a) training schedule
(b) budgets
(c) network diagram
(d) responsibility centres
Answer:
(b) Budgetary control is a technique in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets.

Question 5.
Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting?
(a) Investment centre
(b) Accounting centre
(c) Profit centre
(d) Cost centre
Answer:
(b) Accounting centre is not applicable to responsibility accounting.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Short Answer Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of controlling.
Answer:
Controlling means ensuring that activities in an organisation are performed as per the plans Controlling also ensures that an organisation’s resources are being used effectively and efficiently for the achievement of desired goals. Controlling is, thus a goal oriented function.

Controlling is a very important managerial function. Because of controlling, a manager is able to compare actual performance with the planned performance. In order to control the activities at all levels, a manager needs to perform controlling function.

Question 2.
“Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back”. Comment.
Answer:
Planning and controlling are inseparable. Planning is the primary function of every organisation. It is the thinking process, which means looking ahead or making plans that how the desired goal is achieved in future. Thus it is called a forward looking function. On the other hand, controlling is a systematic function which measures the actual performance against the planned performance. It compares and analyses the whole process of an organisation and takes correcting actions.

Thus, it is a backward looking function. But the statement “Planning is looking a head and controlling is looking back” is only partially correct because it should be understood that planning is guided by past experiences and the corrective action initiated by control function which aims to improve future performance. Thus, planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.

Question 3.
‘An effort to control everything may end up in controlling nothing’. Explain.
Answer:
It’s a well known fact that “Jack of all, master of none”. When we start controlling everything it results in control of nothing because it is not possible at one time to control various activities as this process may neither be economical nor easy. Control thus focuses on KRAs (Key Result Areas). It means instead of controlling all activities, control where the critical points go wrong and by which organisation suffers. Thus, KRAs are set as critical points and one should be aware what one has to control.

Question 4.
Write a short note on budgetary control as a technique of managerial control.
Answer:
Budgetaiy control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned and this will help us in knowing how much we have to spend in order to achieve the desired result. It compares the actual result with budgetary’ standards. This comparison reveals the necessary actions to be taken so that the organisational objectives are accomplished.
Budgeting offers the following advantages

1. Budgeting focuses on specific and time bound targets.
2. Budgeting standards is a source of motivation to the employees. They set the standards against which their performances will be appraised and thus, enables them to perform better.
3. Budgeting helps in optimum utilisation of resources by allocating them according to the requirements of different departments.
4. It helps the management in setting standards.

Question 5.
Explain how management audit serves as an effective technique of controlling.
Answer:
Management audit is a technique which helps measuring the efficiency and effectiveness of management. It is a comprehensive and constructive review Thus, we can say it is defined as the review of the functioning performance and to improve its efficiency in the future. Hence, it serves as an effective technique of control. The following points are proving the same.

1. It helps to locate present and potential deficiencies in the performance of management functions.
2. It helps to improve the control system of an organisation by continuously monitoring the performance of management.
3. It ensures-updating of existing managerial policies and strategies in the light of environmental changes. This results in efficient controlling of management.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Long Answer Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the various steps involved in the process of control.
Answer:
Controlling is the continuous process of evaluating the actual performance against standard performance of an individual, group or department. Controlling is a dynamic process and action or people oriented.
Controlling process involves the following:

1. Setting performance standards: Standard refers to the target upon which the actual performance is measured. Different types of standards are used for measuring the performance of different individuals. Standards may be of two types, qualitative
standard and quantitative standard. Performance standards are mainly derived from the objectives, goals and expectation of the organization. The standards for control should satisfy the following requirement:

• It should be simple and easily understandable
• It should be flexible, not rigid
• It should be in accordance with the people responsible to achieve them,
• It should be consistent with the overall objective of the firm.

2. Measurement of Actual performance: Once these standards are fixed for desired performance, the next step is to measure the actual performance. Measurement of performance should be clear, simple, rational, relevant, and understandable without complaints and misinterpretation.

3.Comparing the actual performance with standards: It involves two steps

• Finding out the extent of deviations
• Identifying the causes of such deviations

While comparing the actual performance against the standards, the deviations are revealed. Once the deviations are noticed and causes for the same are determined, corrective measures are adopted.

4. Analyzing the deviations: Deviations means variations from the standards. Every deviation is analyzed to find out why it has occurred and who is responsible for the same. Deviations may be Negative, Positive or Zero,

• Negative Deviations: If actual performance is less than the standard, it leads to negative deviations.
• Zero Deviations: If actual performance is equal to the standard that leads to Zero deviations.
• Positive Deviations: If actual performance is more than the standard, it leads to Positive deviations.

5. Taking corrective actions: After finding what has gone wrong, where and why, management will initiate corrective action. The remedial actions may involve:

• Review and revision of goals or standards,
• Change in the assignment of tasks
• Provisions for additional resources or new facilities
• Improvement in the selection and training of worker or reform in the technique of direction.

Question 2.
Explain the techniques of managerial control.
Answer:
The various techniques of managerial control may be classified into the following broad categories.
1. Traditional Techniques: Those techniques which have been used by the companies for a long time now, are traditional techniques. However these have not become obsolete and are still being used by companies.

(a) Personal observation: Personal observation enables the manager to collect firsthand information. It also creates a psychological pressure on the employees to perform well as they are aware that they are being observed personally in their job.

(b) Statistical Reports: Statistical analysis in the form of averages, percentages, ratios, correlation etc. present useful information to the managers regarding performance of the organisation in various areas. Such information when presented in the form of charts, graphs, tables etc, enables the managers to read them more easily and allow a comparison to be made with performance in previous periods and also with the benchmarks.

(c) Break-even Analysis: It is a technique used by managers to study the relationship between costs, volume and profits. It determines the probable profits and losses at different levels of activity. The sales volume at which there is no profit, no loss is known as break-even point. It is a useful technique for the managers as it helps in estimating profits at different levels of activities.

(d) Budgetary Control: It is a technique of managerial control in which all the operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards. This comparison reveals the necessary actions to be taken so that organisational goals are accomplished. A budget is a quantitative statement for a definite future period of time for the purpose of obtaining a given objective. It is also a statement which reflects the policy of that particular period. It will contain figures of forecasts both in terms of time and quantities.

2. Modern Techniques: Modem techniques of controlling are those which are of recent origin and are comparatively new in management literature. They provide a new thinking on the ways in which various aspects of an organisation can be controlled

(a) Return on Investment: Return on Investment (ROI) is a useful technique which provides the basic yardstick for measuring whether or not invested capital has been used effectively for generating reasonable amount of return. It can be calculated as under. ROI provides top management an effective means of control for measuring and comparing performance of different departments. It also permits departmental managers to find out the problem which affects ROI in an adverse manner.

(b) Ratio Analysis: It refers to analysis of financial statements through computation of ratios. The most commonly used ratios are
“Ratios: Liquidity ratios are calculated to determinedly short term solvency of business.
“Ratios: Ratios which are calculated to determine the long term solvency of business are known as Solvency ratios.
“Ratios: These ratios are calculated to analyse the profitability position of a business.
“Ratios: They are calculated to determine the efficiency of operations based on effective utilisation of resources.

3. Responsibility Accounting: Responsibility accounting is a system of accounting in which different sections, divisions and departments of an organisation are set up as Responsibility Centres. The head of the centre is responsible for achieving the target set for his centre Responsibility centres may be of the following types.
(a) Cost Centre: A cost or expense centre is a segment of an organisation in which managers are held responsible for the cost incurred in the centre but not for the revenues e.g., production department.

(b) Revenue Centre: A revenue centre is held responsible for generating revenue, e.g.. marketing department.

(c) Profit Centre: A profit centre is responsible for both cost and revenue e.g., repair and maintenance department.

(d) Investment Centre: An investment centre is responsible not only for profits but also for investments made in the centre in the form of assets.

4. Management Audit: Management audit refers to systematic appraisal of the overall performance of the management of an organisation. The purpose is to review the efficiency and effectiveness of management and to improve its performance in future periods. It is helpful in identifying the deficiencies in the performance of management functions. The main advantages are given below.
(a) Helps to locate weaknesses.
(b) It helps to improve the control system.
(c) Ensures updating of existing managerial policies and strategies in the light of environmental changes.

5. PERT and CPM: Programme Evaluation and Review Technique and Critical Path Method are important network techniques useful in planning and controlling. These techniques are especially useful in planning, scheduling and implementing time bound projects involving performance of a variety of complex, diverse and inter-related activities. These techniques deal with time scheduling and resource allocation for these activities and aim at effective execution of projects within given time schedule and structure of costs,

6. Management Information System: MIS is a computer based Information system that provides information and support for effective managerial decision-making. A decision maker requires up-to-date accurate and timely information. MIS provides the required information to the managers by systematically processing a massive data generated In an organisation. Thus, MIS is an important communication tool for managers.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of controlling in an organisation. What are the problems faced by the organisation in implementing an effective control system?
Answer:
Control is an indispensable function of management. Without control, the best-of plans can go awry. A good control system helps an organisation in the following ways.
1. Accomplishing organisational goals: The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals and brings to light the deviations if any and indicates corrective action. It thus guides the organisation and keeps it on the right track so that organisational goals might be achieved.

2. Judging accuracy of Standards: A good control system enables management to verify whether the standards set are accurate and objective. An efficient control system keeps a careful check on the changes taking place in the organisation and in the environment and helps to review and revise the standards in light of such changes.

3. Making efficient use of Resources: By exercising control, a manager seeks to reduce wastage and spoilage of resources: Each activity is performed in accordance with pre-determined standards and norms. This ensures that resources are used in the most efficient and effective manner.

4. Improving employee motivation : A good control system ensures that employees know well in advance what they are expected to do and what are the standards of performance on the basis of which they will be appraised. It, thus motivates them and helps them to give better performance

5. Ensuring order and discipline: Controlling creates an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organisation. It helps to minimise dishonest behaviour on the part of the employees by keeping a close check on their activities.

6. Facilitating co-ordination in action: Controlling provides direction to all activities and efforts for achieving organisational goals. Each department implemented employee is governed by pre-determined standards which are well co-ordination with one another.
This ensures that overall organisational objectives are accomplished.
Although controlling is an important function of management. It suffers from the following limitations also

1. Difficulty in setting Quantitative Standards: Control system loses some of its effectiveness when standards cannot be defined in quantitative terms. This makes measurement of performance and their comparison with standards a difficult task. Employee morale, job satisfaction and human behaviour are such areas where this problem might arise.

2. Little Control on External Factors: Generally an enterprise cannot control external factors such as government policies, technological changes competition etc.

3. Resistance from Employees: Control is often resisted by employees often. They see it as a restriction on their freedom. For instance, employees might object when they are kept under a strict watch with the help of Closed Circuit Televisions (CCTVs).

7. Costly Affair: Control is a costly affair as it involves a lot of expenditure, time and effort. A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system. It cannot justify the expenses involved. Managers must ensure that the costs of installing and operating a control system should not exceed the benefits derived from it.

Question 4.
Discuss the relationship between planning and controlling.
Answer:
Planning and controlling are inseparable, they are the twin pillars of management. A system of control pre-supposes the existence of certain standards. These standards of performance which serve as the basis of controlling are provided by planning. Once a plan becomes operational, controlling is necessary to monitor the progress, measure it, discover deviations and initiate corrective measures to ensure that events conform to plans.

Planning is clearly a pre-requisite for controlling. Controlling cannot be accomplished without planning. With planning, there is no pre-determined understanding of the desired performance. Planning seeks consistent, integrated and articulated programmes while controlling seeks to compel events to conform to plans.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Application Type

Question 1.
Following are some behaviours that you and others might engage in on the job. For each item, choose the behaviour that management must keep a check to ensure an efficient control system.

1. Biased performance appraisals.
2. Using company’s supplies for personal use.
3. Asking a person to violate company’s rules.
4. Calling office to take a day off when one is sick.
5. Overlooking boss’s error to prove loyalty.
6. Claiming credit for someone else’s mom.
7. Reporting a violation on noticing it.
8. Falsifying quality reports.
9. Taking longer than necessary to do the job.
10. Setting standards in consultation with workers.
    You are also required to suggest the management how the undesirable behaviour can be controlled.

Answer:

1. To avoid biased appraisal, performance appraisal should be taken by a committee of experts.
2. If the stationaries are not very expensive, it can be ignored with a stricter control.
3. Strict and immediate disciplinary action should be taken.
4. Mass bunking should not be allowed, –
5. Secret suggestion box can be used to collect feedback about the boss for appraisal.
6. Performance records of employees to be maintained.
7. If minor, can be overlooked
8. Strict quality control techniques should be used.
9. Time and motion study should be used to fix a standard.
10. The use of scientific techniques can help in fixing the most feasible and optimum standards.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Case Problems

A company M limited is manufacturing mobile phones both for domestic Indian market as well as for export. It had enjoyed a substantial market share and also had a loyal customer following. But lately it has been experiencing problems because its targets have not been met with regard to sales and customer satisfaction. Also mobile market in India has grown tremendously and new players have come with better technology and pricing. This is causing problems for the company. It is planning to revamp its controlling system and take other steps necessary to rectify the problems it is facing.

Question 1.
Identify the benefits the company will derive from a good control system.
Answer:
When company starts following a good control on operations, it leads to derive benefits which are as given below.

1. Helps in achieving desired goals.
2. Judging accuracy of operations.
3. Making efficient and effective use of resources.
4. Improving employee morale.
5. Ensuring proper flow of orders and that the whole system is in discipline.
6. It facilitates the co-ordination and improves the performance of every individual.

Question 2.
How can the company relate its planning with control in this line of business to ensure that its plans are actually implemented and targets attained?
Answer:
Company relates its planning with control in this line of business by implementing effective control system as this will help in two aspects. Planning makes controlling effective and efficient whereas controlling improves future planning, as it is like a postmortem of past activities to find out deviations from the standards and in order to ensure that its plans are actually implemented and targets are attained they will take the help from controlling process as it is a systematic process and it leads to the following benefits.
1. Setting up of Standards: In this step, company sets some targets against which the actual performance are measured.

2. Measuring of Performance: In this step, company is able to measure the performance and evaluating what is actually done by the employees.

3. Compare Performance: After evaluating the actual result, company compares the actual performance with the planned one. This helps in knowing whether the desired goal is achieved or not.

4. Analysing Deviations: This refers to the difference between actual and desired performances. It helps the company in knowing whether the deviation is positive or negative. It needs focus on which part rather than analysing the whole.

5. Taking corrective measures: Final step is to know the type of operation and trying to remove this deviation and ensuring that in future it matches the plans.

Question 3.
Give the steps in the control process that the company should follow to remove the problems it is facing.
Answer:
The company should follow these steps in a systematic manner

1. Setting performance standards
2. Measurement of actual performance
3. Comparison of actual performance against standards
4. Analysing deviations
5. Taking corrective actions

Question 4.
What techniques of control can the company use?
Answer:
The company should follow the modern techniques to control the system.
1. ROI (Return on Investment) : It is a useful technique of controlling overall performance of a company. It indicates how resources are being used,facilitates balanced, use effectively of capital employed, focuses on profits and relates them to capital Invested.

2. Responsibility’Accounting: Under this technique, organisation is divided into centres which are responsible for overall growth of the various departments. Responsibility cen-tres in the organisation are these.
(a) Cost Centre : Under this, one can check the production and operational cost.
(b) Revenue Centres : Sales or marketing departments come under this. This is responsible for generating revenue.
(c) Profit Centre : Profit = Revenue – Cost. It ensures the actual profit derived from the business.
(d) Investment Centre : This centre ensures the optimum use of assets and it makes use of return on investment.

3. MIS (Management Information System): It is a control technique which provides information and support for effective managerial decision making. It provides accurate information to the managers, helps in planning, controlling, provides cost effective information and many more.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Additional Questions

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by controlling?
Answer:
It is the continuous process of evaluating actual performance with standard performance of an individual, group or department.

Question 2.
What is control?
Answer:
It is the power or authority to direct or order to confirm the standard Performance.

Question 3.
What do you mean by standard in controlling?
Answer:
Standard is a yardstick consisting of a specific set of action relating to a particular job on which the actual results are to be evaluated.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of deviations in controlling.
Answer:
Deviation means variation from the standard. Deviation or variation may be negative, zero or positive

Question 5.
State any one importance of controlling.
Answer:
Controlling improves employee’s efficiency

Question 6.
State any one process of controlling.
Answer:
Standard setting

Question 7.
Which are the things includes in Quantitative Standards?
Answer:
Quantitative Standards: It includes Quantity, Quality, Cost, Time & etc.

Question 8.
Which are the things includes in Qualitative Standards?
Answer:
Qualitative Standards: It includes Employee morale, consumer satisfaction, Brand leadership etc.

Question 9.
What is standard setting?
Answer:
Standard refers to the target upon which the actual performance is measured.

Question 10.
Mention the types of standards.
Answer:
Standards may be of two types qualitative standard and quantitative standard.

Question 11.
What is negative deviation in controlling process?
Answer:
If actual performance is less than standard that leads to negative deviations.

Question 12.
What is Zero deviation in controlling process?
Answer:
If actual performance is equal to the standard performance, then it is called as Zero deviations.

Question 13.
What is Positive deviation in controlling process?
Answer:
f actual performance is more than standard that leads to Positive deviations.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define controlling?
Answer:
Controlling is the measuring & correcting of activities of subordinates to ensure that events conform according to the plan

Question 2.
State any two importance of controlling.
Answer:
Controlling help for execution of plans, Controlling improves employee’s efficiency

Question 3.
State any two steps in controlling process.
Answer:
Standard setting, measurement of performance

Question 4.
State any two corrective actions when there is a deviation.
Answer:
The remedial actions may involve:
a. Review and revision of goals or standards.
b. Change in the assignment of tasks

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the importance of controlling.
Answer:
It is the continuous process of evaluating actual performance with standard performance of an individual, group or department.
Importance of planning are:
1. Controlling help for execution of plans: Control is the only means to ensure that the plans are being properly implemented. It regulates actual operation to ensure that the goals of the organizations are being achieved.

2. Controlling improves employee’s efficiency: A employee is likely to put better performance if he is aware that his performance will be evaluated as per the standard fixed. He will be rewarded according to the performance which will improve his efficiency.

3. Improve organizational efficiency & effectiveness: Through minimizing wastages, reduction of costs & proper utilization of available resource controlling ensures increase in organizational efficiency & effectiveness

4. Controlling is a basis for future action: control provides feedback & reveals shortcomings in plans Therefore, it helps in preparing better future plans and facilitates sound decision making in future.

5. Controlling facilitates coordination: Controlling facilitates coordination among different departments and divisions by providing them the unity of direction. Coordination is the essence of management and is achieved through proper performance of all managerial functions.

Question 2.
What do you mean by standard in controlling? State the recruitment of good standard.
Answer:
Setting performance standards: Different types of standards are used for measuring the performance of different individuals. Standards may be of two types qualitative standard and quantitative standard. Performance standards are mainly derived from the objectives, goals and expectation of the organization. The standards for control should satisfy the following requirement:
a. It should be simple & easily understandable
b. It should be flexible not rigid
c . It should be in accordance with the people responsible to achieve them.
d. It should be consistent with the overall objective of firm.
e. It should be set scientifically with the help of time and motion studies.
f. It should be expressed in quantitative terms.
g. It should be set consultation with people who are responsible to achieve them.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the controlling process.
Answer:
Controlling is a dynamic process and action or people oriented.
Controlling process involves the following:
1.Setting performance standards: Standards may be of two types qualitative standard and quantitative standard. Performance standards are mainly derived from the objectives, goals and expectation of the organization. The standards for control should satisfy the following requirement: ‘

• It should be simple & easily understandable
• It should be flexible not rigid
• It should be in accordance with the people responsible to achieve them.
• It should be consistent with the overall objective of firm.

2. Measurement of Actual performance: Once these standards are fixed for desired performance the next step is to measure the actual performance. Measurement of performance should be clear, simple, rational, relevant, and understandable without complaints and interpretation.

3. Comparing the actual performance with standards: It involves two steps

• Finding out the extent of deviations.
• Identifying the causes of such deviations

While comparing the actual performance with the standards the deviations are revealed. Once the deviations are noticed and causes for the same are determined corrective measures are adopted.

4. Analyzing the deviations: Deviations means variations from the standards. Every deviation is analyzed to find out why it has occurred and who is responsible for the same. Deviations may be Negative, Positive or Zero.

• Negative Deviations: If actual performance is less than standard that leads to negative deviations.
• Zero Deviations: If actual performance is equal to the standard that leads to Zero . deviations.
• Positive Deviations: If actual performance is more than standard that leads to Positive . deviations.

5. Taking corrective actions: After finding what has gone wrong, where and why, management will initiate corrective action. The remedial actions may involve:

• Review and revision of goals or standards,
• Change in the assignment of tasks
• Provisions for additional resources or new facilities
• Improvement in the selection and training of worker or reform in the technique of direction.

2nd PUC Business Studies Controlling Eight Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define controlling. Explain the importance of controlling.
Answer:
It is the continuous process of evaluating actual performance with standard performance of an individual, group or department. Controlling is a dynamic process and action or people oriented.
Importance of planning are:
1. Controlling help for execution of plans: Control is the only means to ensure that the planes are being properly implemented. It regulates actual operation to ensure that the goals of the organizations are being achieved.

2. Controlling improves employee’s efficiency: A employee is likely to put better performance if he is aware that his performance will be evaluated as per the standard fixed. He will be rewarded according to the performance which will improve his efficiency.

3. Improve organizational efficiency & effectiveness: Through minimizing wastages, reduction of costs & proper utilization of available resource controlling ensures increase in organizational efficiency & effectiveness

4. Controlling is a basis for future action: control provides feedback & reveals shortcomings in plans Therefore, it helps in preparing better future plans and facilitates sound decision making in future.

5. Controlling facilitates coordination: Controlling facilitates coordination among different departments and divisions by providing them the unity of direction. Coordination is the essence of management and is achieved through proper performance of all managerial functions.

6. Delegation of Authority: An effective system of control facilitates delegation of authority. By controlling manger can ensure that the decisions taken at lower levels are according to the standards of the organization.

7. Controlling simplifies supervision: Control helps to simplify the tasks of supervisor by pointing out significant deviations from the standards of performance. It keeps the subordinates under check and brings discipline among them.

8. Controlling is responsible for ultimate performance: As controlling keeps the subordinates under check and bring discipline among them by taking complete responsibility to get the require standard of performance.

You can Download Chapter 9 Mineral and Power Resources Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 9 Mineral and Power Resources

2nd PUC Geography Mineral and Power Resources One Mark Questions with Answers

I. Answer the following in a word or a sentence each:

Question 1.
Define Mineral?
Answer:
Naturaly occuring compound with a fixed chemical composition. It is called mineral.

Question 2.
What is Ore?
Answer:
The minerals is a from which metal can be extracted are called ores.

Question 3.
What is Mining?
Answer:
The economic activity through which man is engaged in the production of minerals is called ‘mining’.

Question 4.
Which is the Beat type of Iron ore?
Answer:
Magnetite.

Question 5.
Name the metal which is made of Bauxite ore?
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 6.
Which is called the as “Wonder metal of 20th Century” ?
Answer:
Aluminium.

Question 7.
When and where was the first Gold production was started in India?
Answer:
Kolar Gold Field [KGF] during the year 1871.

Question 8.
Which is the largest Gold producing state in India?
Answer:
Karnataka.

Question 9.
Name the Atomic minerals in India?
Answer:

• Uranium
• Thorium
• Plutonium.

Question 10.
Which mineral is called as Black Diamond?
Answer:
Coal

Question 11.
Which type of coal is the Best Quality?
Answer:
Anthracite.

Question 12.
Why Jharia is famous for?
Answer:
Jharia is “Store house of the best Metallurgical coal.

Question 13.
In which state Talcher coal mine is located?
Answer:
In Odisha.
(b) Non-conventional source of energy.

Question 14.
What are the source of energy?
Answer:
There are two types of energy:

Question 15.
What is Solar energy?
Answer:
Energy generated by sun rays through the Photovoltaic technology is called solar energy.

Question 16.
What is Biogas?
Answer:
Generation of power by using cow dung is called biogas for ex : Methane, carbon dioxide.

Question 17.
What is Geothermal energy?
Answer:
Generation of power by utilizing heat inside the earth.

Question 18.
What is Metallic minerals.
Answer:
The group of minerals which contain metal can be called as metallic minerals for ex : Iron ore. Manganese, Copper Bauxite etc.

Question 19.
What is Ferrous minerals.
Answer:
The group of minerals which contains iron can be called as ferrous minerals for ex : Iron ore, Manganese.

Question 20.
Which is the largest Iron ore producing state in India.
Answer:
Odisha. It produces 47% of total iron ore in India.

Question 21.
What is ‘Conventional Power resources’.
Answer:
The group of minerals which can’t be used again and again and also exhaustible in nature For ex: coal,-petroleum, natural gas etc.

Question 22.
Which is the best type of coal?
Answer:
Anthracite. It contains 80-90% of carbon.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of term Petroleum.
Answer:
The term “Petroleum” has been derived from two latin words, Petra means ‘rock’ and ‘oleum’ means ‘Oil’ through the word petroleum literally means rock oil.

Question 24.
Which is called ‘Liquid gold’.
Answer:
‘Petroleum’.

Question 25.
Expand ONGC?
Ans:
‘Oil and Natural Gas Commission’(ONGC).

Question 26.
What is ‘Sagar Samrat’?
Answer:
The oil taken from the depth of over 1400 meters with the help of a specially designed plat form known as “Sagar Samrat”.

Question 27.
When and where the first Oil well was drilled.
Ans:
Digboi in Assam, 1867. ’

Question 28.
What is Hydro-electricity.
Answer:
Generation of Power through the falling force of water is called Hydro-electricity.

Question 29.
Which is called ‘White coal’.
Answer:
‘Hydro-electricity’.

Question 30.
What is ‘Fossil fuels’.
Answer:
Fossil fuels are the fuels formed by natural process such as decomposition of hurried dead organisms.

Question 31.
Name the state of world’s largest Solar steam cooking system.
Answer:
Tirumala in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 32.
Which is the World’s largest Solar system.
Answer:
The Shri Sai Baba Sansthan (in Maharastra).

Question 33.
Which is the Asia’s largest wind farm cluster?
Answer:
MuppandalinTamilnadu.

Question 34.
Expand IREDA.
Answer:
Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency.

Question 35.
What are the energies of the future.
Answer:
Renewable energies such as solar energy wind energy etc. They are inexhaustible and pollution free.

2nd PUC Geography Mineral and Power Resources Two Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between Ore and Mineral?
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the main types of Minerals?
Ans:
The types of Minerals are :

1. Metallic
2. Non-metallic.

Question 3.
What are the uses of Minerals?
Answer:

• Minerals supports metallic industries such as iron, steel and aluminium etc.
• Many non-metallic minerals are essential for manufacturing of cement and chemical fertilizers.

Question 4.
Mention the type of coal?
Ans:
The types of coal are:

• Anthracite
• lignite
• Bituminous
• Peat.

Question 5.
Name the two important Gold producing regions of India?
Answer:

• Hutti gold field in Raichur districts and Bellary gold field in Tumkur in Karnataka.
• Ramagiri in Ananthpur district and Jonnagiri in Kumool in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 6.
In which states of India the Gondwana coal fields are located?
Answer:
The Gondwana coal field are located in Jharkhand, Odhisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Maharastra and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 7.
Mention the factors necessary for Thermal Electricity?
Answer:

• There must be Coal, Petroleum or Natural gas in abundance.
• Large space required for the construction of thermal plant.
• Abundant supply of water.

Question 8.
Biogas energy is suitable for rural India. How?
Answer:

• India is an agrarian country’ and has innumerable villages scattered all over the country.
• Animal rearing is one of the subsidary occupation of the cultivators.
• Every’ family has some domestic animals and cow dung can be used to get Biogas.
• It can be used for cooking as well as lighting of the house.

Question 9.
What are the forms of utilization of Solar energy?
Answer:

• Thermal Solar Power.
• Solar Photovoltaic
• Photo Synthesis.

Question 10.
Mention the states where the winds forms are located?
Answer:
The wind forms are located in Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Odisha.

Question 11.
What are the need for non-conventional sources of energy in India?
Answer:
They are capable of solving the requirements
(a) It supplies the energy in a decentralized manner and have sustainable environment. Thus the development of these power resources is very essential.

Question 12.
Distinguish between fuel mineral and non fuel minerals.
Answer:
The minerals which produces power can be called as fuel minerals for ex : coal, petroleum, natural gas etc.
The minerals that doesn’t producers power can be called as non-fuel minerals for ex : mica, limestone, graphite etc.

Question 13.
What are the uses of Bauxite.
Answer:

• Bauxite is the main source of aluminium.
• It is light weight, strong and rust resistant.
• It is used in air crafts, automobiles.
• It is mainly used in electrical industry.

Question 14.
What are the types of energy resources.
Answer:

1. Commercial power resources – coal, petrol, natural gas etc.
2. non-commercial power resources – fire wood, charcoal, cowdung etc.’

Question 15.
Mention the four important factors necessary for the development of Hydroelectricity.
Answer:

• The regular and uniform supply of water is essential.
• The water should fall from a sufficient height.
• It requires huge capital investment to purchase machines.
• A ready available market should be there.

Question 16.
Name the types of thermal power projects.
Answer:

• Coal based thermal power projects.
• Oil based thermal power projects.
• Gas based thermal power projects.

Question 17.
Write need for conservation of power resources.
Answer:

• Minerals are exhaustible resources.
• They occur in nature in limited quantities.
• They cannot be replaced and
• They have taken millions of years to be formed.

Question 18.
Mention the important Geothermal Centres of India.
Answer:

• Jammu and Kashmir
• Himachal Pradesh
• Uttaranchal
• Jharkhand and Chattisgarh

Question 19.
Which are the regions identified for the establishment of tidal power stations in India.
Answer:

• The gulf of Kanbhat on the West coast in Gujarats.
• Sundarbans in the west bengal on the east coast.
• Lakshadweep and Andaman nicobar islands.

2nd PUC Geography Mineral and Power Resources Five Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Explain the distribution and Production of iron ore in India.
Answer:
India is endowed with fairly abundant reserves of iron ore. The estimated iron ore reserves were about 25 billion tonnes in the year 2012-2013.

Odisha :

• It is a largest producer and accounts for about 47 percent of the total iron ore in India. Most of the deposits of iron ore in the state occur in Sundargarh, Mavurbhanj, Cuttack, Sambalapur, Keonjhar and Koraput districts,
• Chattisgarh : It produces over 21 percent of the total production of iron ore in India.
• Chattisgarh is the second largest producer of iron ore in the country. Iron ore producing areas are Bailadila in Bastar, Dhalli Rajhara in Durga and Jabalpur districts.
• Jharkhand : This state ranks third in the production of iron ore in India. It contributes nearly 13 percent of the total production areasar Budhaburu, Kotamatiburu and Rajoriburu in Singhbhum districts.
• Karnataka : Karnataka produces only 4 percent of the iron ore production in India. But it has vast deposits of Harmatite as well as magnetite iron ore in Bababudan hills in Chickmangalur district, Sandur and Hospet area of Bellary district .
• Others : In Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal etc produce small quantity of iron ore.

Production :

• India is the fourth largest produces of iron ore in the world.
• The total production of iron ore is 167 million tonnes in 2011 -12 and 143 million tonnes in 2012-2013.
• It is decreased by 19 percent as compared to previous year.
• This is mainly due to discontinuation of mines in Karnataka and Goa owing to the Hon’ble Supreme court.

Question 2.
Give an account of the uses, distribution and production of manganese ore in the India.
Answer:
Uses :

• Manganese is used to make steel tough and resistant to rusting.
• It is also used in the manufacture of paints, varnishes, batteries, dyes, fertilizers, pottery, calico printing, medicine.
• Manufacture of black enamel in chemical industries, bleaching powder, electrical, glass industries etc.

Thus it is known as “Jack of all Traders”.

India has occupied the second place in respect of Manganese ore reserve in the world after Zimbabwe.

• Odisha : Odisha has about 40.4 percent of India’s reserves of Manganese ore. It is the largest producer and contributes over 24.1 percent of the manganese ore in htdia.
  Best varieties of Manganese ore is found in Sundargarh, Kalahandi and Korput districts.
• Maharashtra : It contributes about 27.7 percent of India’s manganese ore. The main manganese belt is in Nagapur and Bhandara districts.
• Madhya Pradesh : This state contributes nearly 27.6 percent of the total production of Manganese in the country.
  Manganese ore are extend in Balaghat, Chindwara, Jabalpur and Dewas districts.
• Karnataka : About 5.8 percent India’s Manganese ore is produced by Karnataka. The main Manganese ore deposits occur in Uttar Kannada, Shimoga, Bellary, Chitradurga and Tumkur districts.
• Andhra Pradesh : It contributes 13.8 percent of the total maganese ore production of the country. It is found in Srikakulam, Vishakapatnam, Nellore, Kumool and Cudapha dis-tricts.
• Others : Rajasthan, Gujarat, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Bihar etc are the states in which Manganese ore are distributed.

Production :

• India is the 5th largest producer of manganese ore in the world.
• Its total production was 23.22 lakh tonnes in 2010-11.
• The production of manganese is increasing from one year to another.

Question 3.
Describe the distribution, production and trade of Bauxite in India.
Answer:
Distribution :

• Bauxite ore is found in latente rocks occuring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
• It is estimated that total reserves of Buaxite in the country is about 2500 million tones. This reserve is the fifth largest in the vorld.
• Odisha : Odisha has large reserves and is the biggest producer of Bauxite in India. Vast reserves of Bauxite are located at Kalahandi, Koraput, Sundaragarh, Bolingir and Sambalapur districts.
• Chhatisgarh : Chhatisgarh produce more than 18.4 percent of the total production of Bauxite in the country. It is found Bilasapur, Durga, Surguja and Rajagarh districts.
• Maharashtra : Maharashtra accounts for 15.1 percent of the total production of Bauxite in the country. It mainly occurs in Ratnagìri, KoÍlapur, Jhana and Satara districts
• Jharkhand: ¡t is fourth largest producer of Bauxite in India. It contributes about 14.3 percent of total production. It is located in Ranchi, Lahardaga, Palmu and Gumla districts.
• Gujarat: Gujarat is another important producer of Bauxite in India.
  It accounts for 6.6 percent in India. It is located in Jamanagar, Junagash, Kedha Kuchchh and Bhavanagar districts. ‘
• Others : East and West Godavari, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerela, Karnataka etc

Trade :

• Nearly 80 percent of the bauxite in India is used for producing aluminium.
• India’s export of bauxite have been reduced considerably due to the increasing demand in the home market.
• So, India exports only 20 percent of its Bauxite ore mainly to Italy, U.K, Japan and Germany.

Question 4.
Explain the distribution of production of gold in India.
Answer:
Distribution :
1. Karnataka:

• It is the largest producer of Gold in India.
• The state has an estimated reserves of gold ore 17.5 million tonnes.
• It account for 17 percent of India deposits.
• It is found in Kolar, Raichur, Dharwad and Hassan districts.
• Formerly most of the gold production of the state came from Kolar Gold Field (K.G.F). The first gold mining operations took place in K.G.F. during the year 1871. The deposits in K.G.F are almost exhausted.

2. Andhra Pradpsh :

• Andhra Pradesh is the second important producer of gold in India.
• It has 7.06 million tonnes of gold deposits Gold deposits are found in Ramgiri in Ananthpur district.
• Bisanattam and Palachur in Chittor and Jonnagiri in Kumool district.

3. Jharkhand:

• Jharkhand is another producer of gold in India. Its production was about 14 kg in 2010-11.
• Alluvial gold is obtained from the sands of the Subarnarekha river and Iowa in Singhbhum district.

4. Others : Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan etc.
Production : The total gold ore reserves are estimated that is 39.02 million tonnes in

India. But India’s share in the worlds gold production is insignificant. The production of gold has a consistent declined from 1951 to 1991.

• The gold production was 1588 kg in 2012-13 against 2710 kg of 1999-97.
• About 99 percent of the total production of gold in the country is from Karnataka.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance, distribution and production of coal in India.
Answer:
Importance :

• Coal constitutes about 70 percent of the total commercial power consumed in India.
• Coal is a source of energy and raw material for many chemical industries.
• It provides many by products i.e., tar napthaline, ammonia gas, coal gas, benezol etc.
• These are used in the manufacture of synthetic fibres, rubber, plastic, explosives, dyes and insecticides.

Distribution :

• Currently the leading producer of coal in India are Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
• Madhya Pradesh.
• These four states contributes 84.33 percent of the India’s coal production.

1. Chhattisgarh : It is having first place in the production of coal in India.

• It produces 31.3 percent coal of India.
• Major coal fields of the state are located in the Northern part of the state i.e, Surgija, Bilasapur and Korba.

2. Jharkhand : Jharkhand is the second largest producer of coal in India.

• It produces more than 20.3 percent of coal in 2011-2012.
• Jharia, Bokaro, Giridhi, Karnapur, Ramagarh are very important.
• Jharia is one of the oldest and richest coal fields of India. It has been recognised as the “Store house of the best metallurgical coal” in the country.

3. Odisha : It is the third largest producer of the coal and contributing 19.5 percent of the total coal production of the country .

• Most of its coal deposits in Dhenkanal, Sambalapur and Sundaragh districts.

4. Madhya Pradesh : Jharkhand is the second largest producer of coal in India.

• The main coal depoists are located in Sindhi, Shahdol, Betul, Narasingour and Chhindwara districts.

5. Andhra Pradesh :

• It produces about 9.7 percent of coal.
• It is found in Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal districts. ‘

6. Maharashtra : The coal deposits of the state occur in Wardha valley, Ballarpur, Warora in Chandrapur district.

7. West Bengal :

• It has 4.48 percent of the total production of the country.
• Burdwan, Bankura, Purulia, Daijeeling and Jalpaiguri are the chief coal producing districts. ’ Production : The total reserves of all grade coal in India is 283.50 billion tonnes.
• India is producing 560.90 million tonnes of coal in 2012-13.
• So India ranks third among the coal producing countries of the world next to China and
• It contributes 10.2 percent of the total world’s production of coal.

Question 6.
Explain the uses and types of coal in India.
Answer:
Uses :

• Coal is source of energy and raw material for many Chemical Industries. ‘
• It provides many by-products i.e., tar, napthaline, ammonia gas, coal gas, benezol etc.
• These are used in the manufacture of synthetic fibres, rubber, plastic, explosives, dyes and insecticides.

Types :

On the basis of its Carbon content, colour and heating intensity etc. They are as follows:

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Peat.

1. Anthracite : This is the best variety of coal. It contains 80-90 percent of Carbon.

• It is very hard, compact and black in colour.
• It produce more heat than any other form of coal.
• It ignites slowly and bums with a nice short blue flame without producing smoke.
• It is found in Jammu and Kashmir and it is mainly used for Central heating, steam in ship and boilers.

2. Bituminous:

• It contains 50-80 percent of Carbon and found in abundance.
• It is relatively hard and black in colour.
• Mainly it is used in steel industry and thermal power generation.

3. Lignite:

• It is low grade Variety of coal.
• It contains only 40-55 percent of Carbon.
• Its colour is dark to black brown.
• It will give more ash and moisture generation of thermal power, fertilizers and gas.

4. Peat:

• It contains less than 40 percent of Carbon. Therefore it is inferior in quality.
• It gives less heat, but releases more smoke, and a lot of ash after burning.
• So it is mainly used in the thermal power plants and fertilizer industries.

Question 7.
Describe the Occurance, Production and Distribution of crude oil in India.
Answer:
Occurance :

• In India petroleum .was discovered in I860.
• Another important achievement was the discover of oil in the Digboi area in 1889.
• The government of India contituted a separate Directorate of Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) on August 1956, Oil India Ltd., (OIL) on Febraurv 1959.

1. Bombay High: This is the largest oil producing area contributing 42.7 percent of the total crude oil output of the country.

• It is found in coat of Maharashtra about 176 km of the North-West Mumbai.
• It is known as “Sagar Samrat”.

2. Assam :

• In India the petroleum was first dicovered at Makum (Assam) in 1867. The first oil well was drilled at Digboi.
• It contributes about 13.2% of the oil production in the country. ‘
• Major oil fields of Assam state are the Digboi, Naharkatiya, Rudrasagar, Sibsagar and Hugrini.

3. Gujarat: It contributes 15.2% of Petroleum production in India.
Ankaleshwar and Cambay are the main oil fields, Kolob, Nangaon etc.

4. The Eastern Coast Oil field : The basin and deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna of Andhra Pradesh and the Cauvery river of Tamil Nadu holds great potential of oil and natural gas production.

5. Others : Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan etc Production :

• The total production of Petroleum in India was 380.9 lakh tonnes in 2011-12.
• India is not a significant producer of Petroleum in the world.
• Recently the domestic crude oil production has increased. This is because of the constant efforts made by ONGC and Oil India Ltd.

Question 8.
Give account of Thermal and Nuclear Energy of India.
Answer:
Nuclear Energy :

• The energy generated from the fission of the atomic minerals such as Uranium, Thorium,
  Plutonium is called ‘Nuclear Energy’. It has played an important role in the power development of India.
• The demand for energy has been increased with the increase of population in the country.
• The country has power crises as the production is insufficient to meet the requirement.
• To meet energy needs of the country nuclear power programme was formulated.
• The first nuclear power plant was started in 1969 at Tarapur near Mumbai with U.S.A assistance. Now there are 7 nuclear power stations in India.

Thermal Energy :

• The Energy generated by using fossil fuels like Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas is called thermal energy. It can be produced even from Nuclear fission and wood.
• It has certain advantages as against hydro-electricity. The initial capital involved in the construction of thermal plant is low and time requirement is short.
• The disavantages of thermal electricity are low efficiency in terms of heating value and higher operation cost.

Question 9.
Describe the Non-Conventional Energy resources in India.
Answer:
The Power resources other than the traditional fossil and Mineral sources are known as ‘Non Conventional Power Resources’. They include Solar energy, Wind energy, Bio-gas, Sea waves, Biomass and geo-thermal etc. These reasources are inexhaustible and renewable in nature.

Importance :

• These Power resources are found in abudance, pollution free, eco-friendly and not harm to the eco-system.
• They can be very conveniently supplied to urban as well as rural areas.
• In India conventional power resources are inadequate. Recently the rate of energy consumption has been increased.
• Hence there is urgent need to harness other alternative power resources.
• Top priority has been given for the development of non-conventional power resources.
• They are capable of solving the requirements. Such as supply of energy in decentralized manner and have sustainable environment.
• Thus the development of the these power resources is very essential.

Question 10.
Explain the Conservation and Management of Mineral and power resources.
Answer:
Meaning :

• In General “Conservation” refers to the protection and preservation of natural resources and the natural environment for the future.
• This also includes the careful management of natural resources such as minerals, power resources, soil, forests etc., to prevent their destruction or over exploitation.
• The process of managing controlling or conducting is called ‘management’.

Need for Conservation :

• Minerals are exhaustible resources. They occur in nature in limited quantities.
• They cannot be replaced. They have taken millions of years to be formed.
• Human needs have increased greatly and minerals have been exploited without thinking of the Consequences.
• The present day energy, which runs our industries mostly comes from minerals.
• Hence it is necessary that we have to conserve and manage our minerals and power resources.

Question 11.
Explain the production and distribution of natural gas in India.
Answer:
Natural gas is supposed to be the fuel of the 21st Century, because of its efficiency and clean,
Giogrcupbu) (U PUC)

• It is estimated that reserves of natural gas were 1330.26 billion cubic meters (BCM) India produces nearly 47 BCM annually.
• Bombay High : The Bombay high occupies the first place both in terms of reserves and the production of natural gas in India. It accounts for about 81 percent of the total gas production of the country.
• Gujarat and Assam are occupies second and third place respectively Khambhat in Gujarat and Khavaght in Assam are the major producers.
• It is also found in Mangalam in Tamilnadu, Linglu Andhra Pradesh and Jaisalmer in Rajasthan etc.
  Production: India produced 47.9 billion cubic meters (bcm)ofnaturalgasin2011-12. In the recent years the production is increased with the increasing of demand.
• The efforts have been made by the Government of India to improve the production.
• There is a big gap between demand and indigenous production of natural gas. This has to be met through imports.
• ONGC and OIL has taken measures to increase the natural gas production.

Question 12.
Describe the important nuclear power plants in India.
Answer:
There are 7 nuclear power stations in India they are –

1. The first nuclear power plant was started in 1969 at Tarapur near Mumbai with USA assistance. It has installed capacity of 1400 MW.
2. Ranapratap sagar plant near Kota in Rajasthan. It was established in 1973. Its capacity is 1180 MW.
3. Kalpakkam nuclear plant near Chennai in Tamilnadu was established in 1984 and its capacity is 440 MW.
4. Narora nuclear plant near Narora in Uttar Pradesh was established in 1991 and its capacity is 440 MW.
5. Kakrapara Atomic power plant near Kakrapur in Gujarat. It was established in 1993 and its capacity is 440 MW.
6. Kaiga nuclear plant at Kaiga near Karwar in Karnataka. It was established in 2000-and its capacity is 660 MW.
7. Kundakulam in Tamilnadu which was very recently commissioned in 2013. Its capacity is 1000 MW

There is a proposal to set up new nuclear power plants at Sri Sailam in Andhra Pradesh, Jaipur in Rajasthan, Tuticom in Tamilnadu, Talchar in Odhisha and Kolkata in West Bengal.

Question 13.
Explain the measures to conserve the mineral and power resources in India.
Answer:
The following measures may be adopted to conserve mineral and power resources :

• Exploitation of new minerals : It should be explored in accessible areas like high moun-tains, ocean beds and polar regions.
• Conservation of minerals during mining : Conservation of minerals during mining such as coal and natural gas gets damaged and lost due to fire. This destruction has to be stopped.
• Maximum extraction of mined minerals : New technologies should be developed to obtain maximum metal and by products from ores.
• Multipurpose use to minerals : In order to gain maximum utility of the minerals.
• Safe godowns : After mining minerals should be stored properly to avoid the conditions which adversely affect their properties.
• Exploration of alternatives for minerals : It is essential to explore substitutes of minerals found in limited quantities.
• Re-use of minerals : It is another way through which mineral resources can be conserved. ’
• Use of power resources as raw materials : Power resources should not only be a source of power, rather they should be used in industries as raw materials.
• Prohibition of pollution: Mining activity have brought about many effect therfore it must be reduced.
• Developing alternative fuel sources of energy and use more renewable energy sources.

You can Download Chapter 7 Directing Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Business Studies Question Bank Chapter 7 Directing

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Text Book Exercises

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Delegation
(d) Supervision
Answer:
(c) Delegation is not en element of direction.

Question 2.
The motivation theory which classifies needs in hierarchical order is developed by
(a) Fred Luthans
(b) Scott
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Peter F Drucker
Answer:
(c) Abraham Maslow gave the hierarchy of five human needs.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a financial incentive?
(a) Promotion
(b) Stock incentive
(c) Job security
(d) Employee participation
Answer:
(b) Stock incentive is a financial incentive which is a employee stock option with tax benefit.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an element of communication process?
(a) Decoding
(b) Communication
(c) Channel
(d) Receiver
Answer:
(b) Communication is not an element of communication process. It is understood as a process of exchange.

Question 5.
Grapevine is
(a) Formal communication
(b) Barrier to communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Informal communication
Answer:
(d) Informal system of communication is referred as “Grapevine”.

Question 6.
Status comes under the following type of barriers
(a) Semantic barrier
(b) Organisational barrier
(c) Non semantic barrier
(d) Psychological barrier
Answer:
(b) Status is related to organisation, Thus, it is a organisational barrier.

Question 7.
The software company promoted by NarayanaMurthy is
(a) Wipro
(b) Infosys
(c) Satyam
(d) HCL
Answer:
(b) NarayanaMurthy promoted Infosys.

Question 8.
The highest level of need in Need Hierarchy of Abraham Maslow
(a) Safety need
(b) Belongingness need
(c) Self actualisation need
(d) Prestige need
Answer:
(c) Self actualisation need is the highest level of need as it refers to the drive to become what one is capable of becoming.

Question 9.
The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known as
(a) Media
(b) Encoding
(c) Feedback
(d) Decoding
Answer:
(b) The process of converting message into symbol is known as Encoding.

Question 10.
The communication network in which all subordinates under a supervisor communicate through supervisor only is
(a) single chain
(b) inverted
(c) wheel
(d) free flow
Answer:
(c) In the wheel network, the communication takes place in such a manner that subordinates under a supervisor communicate through supervisor only.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Short Answer Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between leaders and managers.
Answer:
Difference between Managers and Leaders

Question 2.
Define motivation.
Answer:
According to Koontz and O Donnel “Motivation is a general term applying to entire class of drives, needs, wishes and similar forces”.

Question 3.
What is informal communications?
Answer:
Communication in which the interchange of information does not follow any formal or officially recognized channels i.e. the communication stretches in all directions irrespective of authority levels is known as informal communication or grapevine communication.

Question 4.
What are semantic barriers of communication?
Answer:
While communicating a message, misrepresentation of communication causes misunderstanding on account of use of wrong words, lack of vocabulary skills, faulty translations and different interpretations which is known as semantic barriers. It is concerned with the problems that arises in the process of encoding and decoding of message into words or impressions. Main causes of semantic barriers are listed below.

• Badly expressed message
• Symbols with different meanings
• Faulty translations
• Unclarified assumptions
• Technical jargon
• Body language and gesture decoding Question

Question 5.
Who is a supervisor?
Answer:
Supervision means instructing, guiding, monitoring motivating and observing the activities of employees from above. The person who is performing the work of supervision is known as supervisor. Supervisor is the link between management and subordinates. He is the person who translates the policies and plan of management to the subordinates and revert back the complaint, suggestions and feedback of subordinates to management.

Question 6.
What are the elements of directing?
Answer:
Directing comprises of four elements
1. Supervision: It can be understood as the process of guiding and instructing the efforts of employees.

2. Motivation: The process of encouraging the employees in order to help them in achieving the desired goals is known as motivation

3. Leadership: It is the process of influencing the behaviour of people by making them strive voluntarily towards achievement of organisational goals.

4. Communication: It is the process of exchange of ideas, views, facts, feelings etc between or among people to create common understanding.

Question 7.
Explain the process of motivation.
Answer:
Motivation process is based on how the unsatisfied human need get satisfied and result in
reduction of tension.
The steps of motivation process are as follows

1. Unsatisfied need: The need of an individual which is not satisfied.
2. Tension: Unsatisfied need creates tension
3. Drive: This tension creates drive and an Individual starts looking for alternatives to satisfy the need.
4. Search Behaviour: Then the individual starts behaving as per chosen option.
5. Satisfied Need: After opting for the chosen behaviour their need gets satisfied.
6. Reduction of Tension : The fulfillment of need results in relieving of tension.

Question 8.
Explain different networks of grapevine communications.
Answer:
Grapevine communications may follow different types of network. They are as follows :

1. Single strand network: Each person communicates to another in sequence.
2. Gossip network: Each person communicates with all on non-selective basis.
3. Probability network: The individual communicates randomly with some other individual.
4. Cluster Network: The individual communicates with only those people whom they trust.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Long Answer Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Briefly explain principles of Directing.
Answer:
a. Maximum individual contribution: This principle emphasises that directing techniques must help every individual in the organisation to contribute to his maximum potential for achievement of organisational objectives. It should bring out untappted energies of em-ployees for the efficiency of organisation.

b. Harmony of objectives: Very often, we find that individual objectives of employees and the organisational objectives as understood are conflicting to each other.

c. Unity of Command: This principle insists that a person in the organisation should receive instructions from one superior only. If instructions are received from more than one, it creates confusion, conflict and disorder in the organisation. Adherence to this principle ensures effective direction.

d. Appropriateness of direction technique: According to this principle, appropriate motivational and leadership technique should be used while directing the people based on subordinate needs, capabilities, attitudes and other situational variables.

e. Managerial communication: Effective managerial communication across all the levels in the organisation makes direction effective. Directing should convey clear instructions to create total understanding to subordinates. Through proper feedback, the managers should ensure that subordinate understands his instructions clearly.

f. Leadership: While directing the subordinates, managers should exercise good leadership as it can influence the subordinates positively without causing dissatisfaction among them.

Question 2.
Explain the qualities of a good leader. Do the qualities alone ensure leadership success?
Answer:
Some of the qualities required by all leaders are the following:
a. Honesty: a leader should be honesty and his honesty will make his sub-ordinates follow him.

b. Ability to delegate: a successful leader should have qualities of delegating authority and responsibility to his sub-ordinates. So that they can participate in effective management.

c. Communication: a successful leader should be good at communication only then he can influence, motivate and direct his sub-ordinates.

d. Confidence: he should be self-confident and should be able to create confidence in his sub-ordinates.

e. Willingness to take risk: he should be willing to take calculated risk and should be ready for any unexpected happenings.

f. Positive attitude: a leader should have a positive attitude towards achieving the goals and also instil the same in his sub-ordinates.

g. Creativity: a leader should think beyond the existing possibilities. New ideas many bring best results so he should have creative mind.

h. Emotional stability: leader must be able to control his emotions and sentiments. He should think intellectually and not sentimentally or emotionally.

i. Art of management: a leader should have the art of managing the sub-ordinates.

j. Passion: leader should be passionate about his work and he passes on this trait to sub-ordinates too.

k. Initiative: leader should lead by initiating the things he should not wait for things to happen.

l. Ability to listen: he should be a good listener. He should not only listen to the direction given by his superiors but also listen to subordinates.

Conclusion : Many times, the success of an organisation is attributed to the leader, but due credit is not given to the followers. Many follower related factors like their skills, knowledge, commitment, willingness to co-operate team spirit etc make a person an effective leader. It is said that followers make a person a good leader, by acceptance of leadership. Therefore both followers and leaders are playing an vital role in the leadership process.

Question 3.
Discuss Maslow’s Need Hierarchy theory of motivation.
Answer:
a. Physiological Needs: They are food, clothing, shelter etc. These are basic needs and any person would give its preference to these needs. Once these needs are satisfied he thinks of next level of needs.

b. Safety needs: These needs are protection against danger, threat and need for job security. These needs will arise from an individual only when he is reasonable well satisfied with his physiological needs.

c. Social needs: These needs include belongingness, association, acceptance, friendship and love. They become important to an individual only after he is satisfied with physiological and safety needs.

d. Esteem needs: These needs include self-esteem, recognition status, achievement etc. They dominate an individual only when he is reasonably satisfied with safety needs.

e. Self-actualisation needs: These needs arise only when an individual is reasonably satisfied with esteem needs. They include the need to realise one’s capabilities and potentials by achieving specific goals.

Question 4.
What are the common barriers to effective communication? Suggest measures to overcome them.
Answer:
Physical barriers: internal structure of organisation and layout of office machines and equipment creates physical barriers in communication.
a. Distance: Communication is found obstructed in long distance. Like communication

b. Noise: Noise is a physical barrier to good communication since it interferes with the message being communicated

c. Physical arrangements: The physical arrangement of organisational sources like men, material and machine obstruct (effects) the Communication process.

Semantic barriers: The use of difficult and multiple uses of languages, words, figures and symbols create semantic barriers.
a. Language: some words have different meaning. As meaning sent by the sender can be quite different from the meaning understood by the receiver. Long sentences create problems in Communication process.
b. Jargons: technical or unfamiliar terms that are drawn from the literature, creates barriers to Communication.

Organisational barriers: These arise from the organisational goals, regulations, structure and culture.
a. Structure complexities: Difficult organisational structure creates barrier for free flow of information.
b. Status differences: Status of individual person in different levels of management has prestige. Hence it acts as barrier to effective Communication.
c. Organisational distance: Distance between sender and receiver also creates barriers to effective Communication.
d. Information overload: Too much information to the subordinates in short period will suffers from overloaded information which creates Barriers to effective Communication.
e. Timing: If the information is not provided in time it creates barriers in Communication.

Psychological barriers: these are barriers to effective communication creates due to lack of interest in people for whom the communication is meant. People do not pay attention to the communication in which they are not interested.
a. Perception: it is the process of accepting and interpreting the information by the receiver. The analysing and think process of individual also effectives Communication.
b. Filtering: Communication sometimes filers the information by the receiver knowingly or unknowingly.
c. Distrust: superiors provide information to the subordinates according to the trust of subordinates they acts.
d. Emotions: Emotions also creates barriers to effective communication like anger, jealousy, hatred etc.

Question 5.
Explain different financial and non-financial incentives used to motivate employees of a company.
Answer:
Financial incentives : Financial incentives refer to incentives which are in direct monetary form or measurable in monetary term and serve to motivate people for better performance. The financial incentives used in organisations are listed below
1. Pay and allowances : For every employee, salary is the basic monetary incentive. It includes basic pay, DA and other allowances. Salary system consists of regular increments in the pay every year and enhancement of allowances from time to time.

2. Productivity linked wage incentives: Several wage incentives aim at linking payment of wages to increase in productivity at individual or group level.

3. Profit sharing: Profit sharing is meant to provide a share to employees from the profits of the organisation This serves to motivate the employees to improve their performance and contribute to an increase in profits.

4. Co-Partnership/Stock option: Under these incentive schemes, employees are offered company shares at a set price which is lower than market price. The allotment of shares creates a feeling of ownership to the employees and makes them to contribute more for the growth of the organisation.

5. Retirement benefits: Several retirement benefits such as provident fund, pension and gratuity provide financial security to employees after their retirement. These act as an incentive when they are in service in service in the organisation.

6. Perquisites : In many companies perquisites and fringe benefits are offered such as car allowance, housing, medical aid, and education etc over and above the salary. These measures help to provide motivation to the employees/managers.

Non-financial Incentives: Incentives which help in fulfilling one’s psychological, emotional and social needs are known as non-financial incentives Some of the non-financial incentives are given below.

1. Status: Status means ranking or high positions in the organisation. Whatever power, position and prestige an employee enjoys in the organisation are indicated by their status. Psychological, social and esteem needs of an individual are satisfied by status given to their job.

2. Organisational climate: This indicates the characteristics which describe an organisation and distinguish one from the other. Individual autonomy, reward orientation, consideration to employees, etc are some of the positive features of an organisation. If managers try and include more of these in an organisation it helps to develop better organisational climate.

3. Career Advancement Opportunity: Managers should provide opportunity to employees to improve their skills and be promoted to higher level jobs. Appropriate skill development programmes and sound promotion policy will help employees to achieve promotions. Promotions have always worked as tonic and encourage employees to exhibit improved performance.

4. Job enrichment: Job enrichment is concerned with designing jobs that include greater variety of work contentment and require higher of knowledge and skill, to give workers more autonomy level and responsibility and provide opportunity for personal growth and a meaningful work experience

5. Employee recognition programmes : Recognition means acknowledgement with a show of appreciation. When such appreciation is given to the work performed by employees, they feel motivated to perform/work at a higher level, e g.,
(a) Congratulate the employee on the completion of a difficult task.
(b) Displaying names of star performers
(c) Installing awards
(d) Distributing mementos’

6. Job Security: Employees want their job to be secure. They want certain stability about future income and work so that they do not feel warned on these aspects and work with greater zeal. There is only one problem with this incentive i.e., when people feel that they are not likely to lose their jobs, they may become relaxed.

7. Employee participation: It means involving employees in decision making about the issues related to them. In many companies, these programmes are in practice in the form of joint management committees, work committees, canteen committees etc.

8. Employee Empowerment: Empowerment means giving more autonomy and powers to subordinates. Empowerment makes people feel that their jobs are important. This feeling contributes positively to the use of skills and talents and the job performance.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Application Questions

Question 1.
The workers always try to show their inability when any new work is given to them. They are always unwilling to take up any kind of work. Due to sudden rise in demand a firm wants to meet excess orders. The supervisor is finding it difficult to cope up with the situation. Suggest ways for the supervisor to handle the problem.
Answer:
The supervisor can make use of monetary incentives to motivate the workers. Their wages can be linked to productivity. They can earn more incentives, besides wages by producing more goods. The supervisor should also play the role of a good leader and encourage them to accept any kind of work as it would lead to increase exposure to the industry and better job prospects.

Question 2.
Workers of a factory often come to the production manager with grievances. The production manager finds himself overburdened with so many tasks. Advise a way to relieve the production managers.
Answer:
To overcome the problem the production manager should take the following measures

• Arrange necessary training programmes
• Prepare a work schedule
• Recommend the cases of the workers for promotion, rewards, transfer, punishment etc.
• Proper availability of materials, machines and tools for the workers
• Delegate sum of rus authorities (???)

Question 3.
In an organisation employees always feel they are under stress. They take least initiative and fear to express their problems before the manager. What do you think is wrong with the manager?
Answer:
The manager should adopt more friendly approach towards the workers. The manager should encourage a system of two-way communication, provide an outlet for workers to share their feelings, suggestions and problems.

Question 4.
In an organisation, all the employees take things easy and are free to approach anyone for minor queries and problems. This has resulted in everyone talking to each other and thus resulting in inefficiency in the office. It has also resulted in loss of secrecy and confidential information being leaked out. What system do you think the manager should adopt to improve communication?
Answer:
Excess of everything is bad. More use of informal communication is resulting in this problem. A proper chain of command should be established. Only the necessary information should be passed through chain of command. The employees should not be allowed to communicate at all levels. This will save time and bring in more discipline.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Case Problems

Y limited is a Bank functioning in India. It is planning to diversify to increase business. Lately, the Government of India has allowed the private sector to gain entry in the insurance business. Previously, it was the prerogative of LIC and GIC to do insurance business. But now with liberalisation of the economy and to make the field competitive, other compnies have been given licenses to start insurance business under the regualtion of insurance Regulatory and Development Authority. Y limited plans to recruit high quality employees and agents and exercise effective direction to capture a substantial part of life and non-life insurance business.

Question 1.
Identify how the company can supervise its employees and agents effectively. What benefits will the company derive from effective supervision?
Answer:
The company can supervise its employees and agents by taking the following steps.

1. Training programmes should be organised
2. Make the staff and agent them understand the various policies so that they can convince their clients.
3. Establishing targets for them and also monetary incentives. ,
4. Regularised system for submission of periodical reports of their performance.

The benefits of the above steps will be as follows.

1. Trained personnel will give better performance. They can Improve upon their skills
2. Knowledge of the products of the Insurance company will ensure better satisfaction for the clients.
3. They will compete to give better performance and earn higher incentives.
4. It will help in identifying the areas where workers and agents need specialised training programmes.

Question 2.
What financial and non financial incentives can the company use for employees and agents separately to motivate them. What benefits company will get from them?
Answers:
Incentives for Employees
1. Financial
(a) Productivity linked wage incentive
(b) Bonus
(c) Co-partnership
(d) Employee stock option

2. Non financial
(a) Job – security
(b) Status
(c) Employee empowerment
(d) Employee recognition

Incentives for agent
1. Financial
(a) Commission
(b) Bonus like paid vacation

2. Non-financial Incentive
(a) Cordial relationship
(c) Job enrichment
(d) Recognition programmes like certificate of merit etc.
(e) Company achieves the motivation among the employees and they will contribute more in achieving targets.

Question 3.
How can the company ensure that higher order needs i.e. esteem and self actualisation needs are met?
Answer:
The higher order needs can be satisfied through

1. Career advancement opportunity
2. Assignment of challengingjob
3. Perquisites
4. Participation in management decisions

Question 4.
Identify the qualities of leadership in this line of business that the company manager must possess to motivate employees and agents.
Answer:
The qualities of leadership which the manager of the Insurance company must possess are

1. Intelligence
2. Good communication skills
3. Self confidence, integrity and honesty
4. Being a good listener
5. Pleasing personality

Question 5.
Give a model of formal communication system that the company can follow. Identify the barriers in this model. How can they be removed?
Answer:
The most suitable model for formal communication is given below – Barriers to effective Communication .
1. Barriers due to organisational structure : An organisational structure is complex with numerous levels in between which creates distance between the top management and the workers. With long lines of communication, there is a possibility of message losing its significance.

2. Psychological Barriers: Everyone perceives information in the light of their own experiences, prejudices and thinking.

3. Inability to communicate: The lack of ability to communicate leads to misunderstanding and confusion. Different people assume different meanings for the same words.

4. Status and Position : Sometimes, effective flow of communication is hampered by status and position of the sender and receiver.

Measures to overcome the Barriers :

1. Clarity in the thoughts of the sender is a must for effective communication.
2. The sender should try to make the message meaningful and understandable.
3. Message should be precise and to the point.
4. The sender should always take feedback from the receiver.

Question 6.
How can informal communication help to supplement formal communication model given by you in answer to question?
Answer:
Informal communication takes place outside the official channels of communication. It fills the gaps that might exist in the formal communication. Merits of informal communication are those.

• It helps the members to discuss the matters which cannot be discussed at the official level.
• It is a way of knowing the reactions and opinions of the people about a change.
• It helps in building team spirit,
• The information flows at a faster speed.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Additional Questions

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State any one style of leadership.
Answer:
Autocratic leadership

Question 2.
Write any one quality of as successful leader.
Answer:
Honesty

Question 3.
State any one barrier of communication.
Answer:
Clarity of ideas.

Question 4.
What is directing?
Answer:
Direction is telling people what to do and seeing that they do it to the best of their ability. It includes making assignments, explaining procedures seeing that mistakes are corrected.

Question 5.
State any one feature of directing.
Answer:
Action Oriented.

Question 6.
State any one importance of directing.
Answer:
Coordination.

Question 7.
State any one importance of supervision.
Answer:
Planning & organizing the work.

Question 8.
What is communication.
Answer:
Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more person.

Question 9.
State any one importance of communication.
Answer:
Good Co-ordination or Smooth working.

Question 10.
What is direction?
Answer:
Direction is a continuous process through which managers interact with the employees of the enterprise and provide to necessary instructions, guide them in the process of achieving enterprise’s goal and objectives.

Question 11.
Name any one barriers of communication.
Answer:
Physical Barriers: Distance, Noise, Physical Arrangement.

Question 12.
State any one element of direction.
Answer:
Supervision.

Question 13.
State any one way to overcome the barriers of effective communication.
Answer:
a. Clarity of ideas
b. Ensure proper feedback
c. Be a good listener.

Question 14.
Name any one need of human being stated by Maslow.
Answer:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Social needs
d. Esteem or ego needs.

Question 15.
Name the theory evolved by Maslow.
Answer:
Maslow’s theory hierarchy of needs.

Question 16.
State the assumption on which Maslow’s theory is based.
Answer:
Need have priority and they are arranged according to hierarchy of importance.

Question 17.
Name the origin of the word motivation.
Answer:
Motivation word derived from Latin word Movere which means to move.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Two Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the meaning of semantic barriers of communication.
Answer:
Semantic barriers are the use of different & multiple uses of languages, words, figure & symbols create semantic barriers.

Question 2.
Define communication.
Answer:
According to George Terry “Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons”.

Question 3.
Define leadership.
Answer:
According to Louis Allen ”A leader is one who guides and directs other people. A leader gives the efforts of his followers a direction and purpose by influencing their behaviour”.

Question 4.
What is supervision?
Answer:

• Supervision means overseeing the sub-ordinates at work to ensure that the work is being performed as required.
• Supervision refers to the direct and immediate guidance and control of subordinates in perfor-mance of their tasks.

Question 5.
Name any two leadership styles.
Answer:
a. Autocratic Leadership
b. Democratic Leadership
c. Laissez Faire Leadership
d. Bureaucratic Leadership

Question 6.
What is formal communication?
Answer:
Communication which are associated with a formal organization structure and which are to be sent through the formal or officially recognized channels are called formal communications.

Question 7.
Define Direction.
Answer:
According to Koontz and O’Donnell Direction is the inter-personal aspect of managing by which subordinates are led to understand and contribute effectively and efficiently to the attainment of enterprise objectives.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Autocratic leadership?
Answer:
Autocratic leadership is a style of leadership where the leader tends to run the whole show by him. He does not delegate authority and wants his sub-ordinates to work according to his orders. Sub-ordinates cannot give suggestions or ideas.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Democratic leadership?
Answer:
In Democratic leadership the leader asks suggestions and opinions from his sub-ordinates and allows them to participate in decision making and in its implementation.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Laissez-faire leadership?
Answer:
In Laissez-faire leadership the leader is one who leaves his sub-ordinates free to decide things for themselves. All authority or power is given to staff and they determine goals, make decisions and resolve problems on their own.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Bureaucratic leadership?
Answer:
Bureaucratic leadership is a type of leadership where the leader goes “by the book”. Every thing is done in accordance with the procedure or policy and if anything is done which is not covered by the book, the same is referred to the next level above.

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Four Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain briefly the importance of supervision.
Answer:
Supervision refers to the direct & immediate guidance & control of subordinates in performance of their tasks. Supervision plays an important role as an element of direction.
1. Issue of order & Instructions: A supervisor guides the worker and helps them in clearing their doubts.

2. Planning & organizing the work: It guides the subordinates, lays down targets and determines the procedure for doing the work.

3. Vital link between workers & management: Supervision represents both workers & themanagement. It acts as a link between them. It communicates the policies of the management to workers and also provides the feedback of the workers to the management.

4. Motivating subordinates: It inspires team work & secures maximum cooperation from the workers.

5. Feed back to workers: It compares the actual performance of the worker with the standards and helps in identifying the weaknesses of the workers as a result, workers can improve their performance in future.

Question 2.
Explain the elements of directing
Answer:
a. Delegation: Delegation involves issuing orders or giving instructions by the superiors to the sub-ordinates.

b. Supervision: It is concerned with observing the work of sub-ordinates. It ensures the  work to be performed as per the plans and contributes for achieving organisational objectives.

c. Leadership: Leadership is the process of influencing the sub-ordinates to work willingly and enthusiastically for achieving goals of an organisation.

d. Motivation: Motivation is one more element of direction. It creates in men the desire and sense of belongingness to work for the organisation.

e. Communication: Communication is an internal part of direction. Through communication manager issues guidelines to the sub-ordinates as to what they should do and how they should do it.

f. Co-ordination: Co-ordination helps proper integration of activities of various members involved in achieving organisational goals.

Question 3.
Explain different styles of leadership.
Answer:
a. Autocratic or authoritarian style leader: It is a style of leadership where the leader tends to run the whole show by him. He does not delegate authority and wants his sub-ordinates to work according to his orders. Sub-ordinates cannot give suggestions or ideas.

b. Democratic or participative style leader: In this leader asks suggestions and opinions from his sub-ordinates and allows them to participate in decision making and in its implementation.

c. Laissez-faire or free run style leader: In this leader is one who leaves his sub-ordinates free to decide things for themselves. All authority or power is given to staff and they determine goals, make decisions and resolve problems on their own.

d. Bureaucratic leadership: It is a type of leadership where the leader goes “by the book”. Everything is done in accordance with the procedure or policy and if anything is done which is not covered by the book, the same is referred to the next level above.

Question 4.
Explain the qualities of successful leader
Answer:
a. Honesty: a leader should be honesty and his honesty will make his sub-ordinates follow him.

b. Ability to delegate: a successful leader should have qualities of delegating authority and responsibility to his sub-ordinates. So that they can participate in effective management.

c. Communication: a successful leader should be good at communication only then he can influence, motivate and direct his sub-ordinates.

d. Confidence: he should be self-confident and should be able to create confidence in his sub-ordinates.

e. Willingness to take risk: he should be willing to take calculated risk and should be ready for any unexpected happenings.

f. Positive attitude: a leader should have a positive attitude towards achieving the goals and also instil the same in his sub-ordinates.

g. Creativity: a leader should think beyond the existing possibilities. New ideas many bring best results so he should have creative mind.

h. Emotional stability: leader must be able to control his emotions and sentiments. He should think intellectually and not sentimentally or emotionally.

i. Art of management: a leader should have the art of managing the sub-ordinates.

j. Passion: leader should be passionate about his work and he passes oh this trait to sub-ordinates too.

k. Initiative: leader should lead by initiating the things he should not wait for things to happen.

l. Ability to listen: he should be a good listener. He should not only listen to the direction given by his superiors but also listen to subordinates.

Question 5.
Explain the importance or advantages of good communication
Answer:
a. Effective decision making: Communication plays a vital role in the decision making process. It helps in correct and complete information to reach the top management and to take best decision.

b. Managerial efficiency: Managerial functional like planning, control, co-ordination, motivation cannot be discharge without communication.

c. Co-operation: Co-operation among workers is possible only when there is an exchange of information between individuals and groups and between the management and the employees.

d. Increases productivity: A good system of communication helps the management to achieve maximum productivity with minimum cost, elimination of waste, reduction of cost etc .

e. Smooth working: Communication helps smooth the work in an organization. Smooth functioning depends on proper information supply. Communication is the essence of it.

f. Effective Leadership: There is always a continuous process of communication between leader and the follower. Success of leadership lies in good communication skill.

g. Co-ordination: co-ordination consists of many employees working towards common goals.co-ordination is importance to achieve the common goal by a group . Communication facilitates such co-ordination.

Question 6.
Explain the ways to overcome barriers of communication
Answer:
a. Clarity of ideas: the person sending the communication should be very clear in his mind about what he wants to say. He should know the objective of his message and, therefore, he should arrange his thoughts in a proper order.

b. Communicate according to the need of the receiver: the sender of the communication should prepare the structure of the message not according to his own level or ability’ but he should keep in mind the level, understanding or the environment of the receiver.

c. Be aware of language, tone and content of message: the sender should take care of the fact that the message should be clear and beautiful language. The tone and contents of the message should be clear and understandable.

d. Convey things of help and value to the listener: the subject matter of the message should be helpful to the receiver. The need and interest of the receiver should specially be kept in mind. Communication is more effective in such situation.

e. Ensure proper feedback: after the sending the information feedback is to find out whether the receiver has properly understood the meaning of the information received.

f. Follow up Communication: to make Communication effective the management should regularly try to know the weaknesses of the communication system.

g. Be a good listener: the essence of communication is that both the sender and the receiver should be good listeners both should listen to each other’s point of view with attention, patience and positive attitude.

Question 7.
Explain the barriers to effective communication.
Answer:
Physical barriers: internal structure of organisation and layout of office machines and equipment creates physical barriers in communication.
a. Distance: Communication is found obstructed in long distance. Like communication
b. Noise: Noise is a physical barrier to good communication since it interferes with the message being communicated
c. Physical arrangements: The physical arrangement of organisational sources like men, material and machine obstruct (effects) the Communication process.

Semantic barriers: The use of difficult and multiple uses of languages, words, figures and symbols create semantic barriers.
a. Language: some words have different meaning. As meaning sent by the sender can be quite different from the meaning understood by the receiver. Long sentences create problems in Communication process.
b. Jargons: technical or unfamiliar terms that are drawn from the literature, creates barriers to Communication.

Organisational barriers: these arise from the organisational goals, regulations, structure and culture.
a. Structure complexities: Difficult organisational structure creates barrier for free flow of information.
b. Status differences: Status of individual person in different levels of management has prestige. Hence it acts as barrier to effective Communication.
c. Organisational distance: Distance between sender and receiver also creates barriers to effective Communication.
d. Information overload: Too much information to the subordinates in short period will suffers from overloaded information which creates Barriers to effective Communication.
e. Timing: If the information is not provided in time it creates barriers in Communication.

Psychological barriers: these are barriers to effective communication creates due to lack of interest in people for whom the communication is meant. People do not pay attention to the communication in which they are not interested.
a. Perception: it is the process of accepting and interpreting the information by the receiver. The analysing and think process of individual also effectives Communication.
b. Filtering: Communication sometimes filers the information by the receiver knowingly or unknowingly.
c. Distrust: superiors provide information to the subordinates according to the trust of subordinates they acts.
d. Emotions: Emotions also creates barriers to effective communication like anger, jealousy, hatred etc.

Question 8.
State the any four Features of Motivation.
Answer:
1. Motivation is an internal feeling. The urge, drives, desires, aspirations, striving or needs of human being, which are internal, influence human behaviour.

2. Motivation produces goal directed behaviour.

3. Motivation can be either positive or negative. Positive motivation provides positive rewards like increase in pay, promotion, recognition etc., Negative motivation uses negative means like punishment, stopping increments, threatening etc.

4. Motivation is a complex process as the individuals are heterogeneous in their expectations, perceptions and reactions. Any type of motivation may not have uniform effect on all the members.

Question 9.
State any four Importance of Motivation.
Answer:
1. Motivation helps to change negative or indifferent attitudes of employee to positive attitudes so as to achieve organisational goals.

2. Motivation helps to improve performance levels of employees as well as the organisation. Good motivation in the organisation helps to achieve higher levels of performance as motivated employees contribute their maximum efforts for organisational goals.

3. Motivation helps to reduce employee turnover and thereby saves the cost of new recruitment and training.

4. Motivation helps to reduce absenteeism in the organisation.

5. Motivation helps managers to introduce changes smoothly without much resistance from people.

Question 10.
State the features of leadership
Answer:

1. Leadership indicates ability of an individual to influence others.
2. Leadership tries to bring change in the behaviour of others.
3. Leadership indicates interpersonal relations between leaders and followers.
4. Leadership is exercised to achieve common goals of the organisation.
5. Leadership is a continuous process.

Question 11.
Explain the Elements of Communication Process.
Answer:

1. Sender: Sender means person who conveys his thoughts or ideas to the receiver. The sender represents source of communication.
2. Message: It is the content of ideas, feelings, suggestions, order etc., intended to be communicated.
3. Encoding: It is the process of converting the message into communication symbols such as words, pictures, gestures etc.,
4. Media: It is the path through which encoded message is transmitted to receiver. The channel may be in written form, face to face, phone call, internet etc.,
5. Decoding: It is the process of converting encoded symbols of the sender.
6. Receiver: The person who receives communication of the sender.
7. Feedback: It includes all those actions of receiver indicating that he has received and understood message of sender.
8. Noise: Noise means some obstruction or hindrance to communication. This hindrance may be caused to sender, message or receiver.

Question 12.
Explain the importance of directing
Answer:
Importance of directing are:
Action Oriented: This involves delegation of authority & assigning of responsibility.
1. Integration of efforts: Employees at various levels by proper delegation of authority & responsibility which intern help in achieving organizational objectives.

2. Efficient use of resources: Directing involves bringing in proper methods of doing work. It helps in the efficient use of resources of the organization.

3. Essential element: Directing is essential for effective supervision, motivation, leadership & communication.

4. Efficiency: Proper Direction will help the employees to achieve their best as it provides clarity of work. It ensures efficiency.

5. Flexibility: Directing helps to bring flexibility in the organization. It helps the subordinates to accept the challenges which the management intends to bring in future.

6. Clarity: Directing gives clarity in authority & responsibility. This helps to bring discipline among the employees.

7. Discipline: It helps to maintain in discipline which results in smooth functioning of the work.

8. Co Coordination: It coordinates different activities of the management.

9. Creation of leaders: Good direction creates good leaders.

Question 13.
What are semantic barriers of communication?
Answer:
While communicating a message, misrepresentation of communication causes misunderstanding on account of use of wrong words, lack of vocabulary skills, faulty translations and different interpretations which is known as semantic barriers.
Mention the causes for semantic barriers.

• Badly expressed message
• Symbols with different meanings
• Faulty translations
• Unclarified assumptions
• Technical jargon
• Body language and gesture decoding Question

2nd PUC Business Studies Directing Eight Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the importance of direction as a function of management?
Answer:
Importance of Directing are:

• Action Oriented: This involves delegation of authority & assigning of responsibility.
• Integration of efforts: Employees at various levels by proper delegation of authority & responsibility which intern help in achieving organizational objectives.
• Efficient use of resources: Directing involves bringing in proper methods of doing work. It helps in the efficient use of resources of the organization.
• Essential element: Directing is essential for effective supervision, motivation, leadership & communication.
• Efficiency: Proper Direction will help the employees to achieve their best as it provides clarity of work. It ensures efficiency.
• Flexibility: Directing helps to bring flexibility in the organization. It helps the subordinates to accept the challenges which the management intends to bring in future.
• Clarity: Directing gives clarity in authority & responsibility. This helps to bring discipline among the employees.
• Discipline: It helps to maintain in discipline which results in smooth functioning of the work.
• Co Coordination: It coordinates different activities of the management.
• Creation of leaders: Good direction creates good leaders.

Question 2.
Explain how supervision plays an important role as an element of direction?
Answer:
Supervision refers to the direct & immediate guidance & control of subordinates in performance . of their tasks. Supervision plays an important role as an element of direction.

• Issue of order & Instructions: A supervisor guides the worker and helps them in clearing their doubts.
• Planning & organizing the work: It guides the subordinates, lays down targets and determines the procedure for doing the work.
• Vital link between workers & management: Supervision represents both workers & the management. It acts as a link between them. It communicates the policies of the management to workers and also provides the feedback of the workers to the management.
• Motivating subordinates: It inspires team work & secures maximum cooperation from the workers.
• Feed back to workers: It compares the actual performance of the worker with the standards and helps in identifying the weaknesses of the workers as a result, workers can improve their performance in future.
• Proper assignment of work: Supervision helps in identifying the capabilities of workers . and assigns the work accordingly.
• Maintain discipline: Supervision is directly responsible for enforcing the rules and regulation of the organization & to maintain disciple in the organization.

You can Download Chapter 8 Agriculture Questions and Answers, Notes, 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank with Answers Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka 2nd PUC Geography Question Bank Chapter 8 Agriculture

2nd PUC Geography Agriculture One Mark Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is an the art of tilling the land to raise the crops for the benefit of food for the man and fooder for the animals.

Question 2.
What is Subsistence Farming?
Answer:
The production of crops for the purpose of Domestic consumption and not for commercial use is called “Subsistence Farming”.

Question 3.
What is Migratory Farming?
Answer:
It is practised by tribals under this system former clear patches of forest to grow the crops later people migrate to another parts of forest for their activities like cultivation of crops, hunting fishing etc.

Question 4.
Which crops are suitable for dry firming.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, ragi, oil seeds are the important dry farming crops.

Question 5.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
Increase in Food production through the introduction of high yield crop varieties and application of modem agricultural techniques is called Green Revolution.

Question 6.
What is “Tissue Culture”?
Answer:
The growing of a cell or tissue or an organ in an artifical aseptic and nutritive medium is called “Tissue culture”.

Question 7.
Define Organic Farming?
Answer:
Organic Farming is the form of agriculture that uses green manure, compost and biological pest control by eliminating the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides etc.

Question 8.
Which states is the largest producer of vegetables?
Answer:
The West Bengal ranks first with about 15% of the country’s production.

Question 9.
Which is the King of spices?
Answer:
“Black Pepper” is the King of spices.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “Catch crops”?
Answer:
In areas supported by the Irrigation vegetables can grow 3 to 4 crops in a year. This source of income is called “Catch crops”.

Question 11.
Which state is popular for the production of Bastmati Rice in India?
Answer:
Punjab state is popular for the production of Basumati Rice.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Food crops?
Answer:
The crops which are grown to provide one of the basic essential like food for the people are known as “Food crops”.

Question 13.
Define Plantation crops?
Answer:
The crops which are grown on plantations covering large estates are known as Plantation crops.

Question 14.
What is Ratooning system?
Answer:
It is one of popular method of sugarcane cultivation. In which growing of second crop from the roots of the first crop can be called as Ratooning system.

Question 15.
Mention two important beverage crops of India?
Answer:
Tea and Coffee are important Beverage crops of India.

Question 16.
What is humid farming?
Answer:
Cultivation of crops, where the areas receiving sufficient rainfall without the help of irrigation is known as Wet farming or Humid farming.

Question 17.
Who is the father of ‘Green revolution’?
Answer:
‘Norman Ernest Borlaug’.

Question 18.
Who is the father of Green revolution in India. When was it introduced.
Answer:
‘Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan’ is the father of Green revolution was introduced in 1960’s.

Question 19.
Expand IADP?
Answer:
‘Intensive Agricultural Development Programme’.

Question 20.
Which is the first state to introduce policy on Organic farming and When.
Answer:
Karnataka, On March 24th, 2004.

Question 21.
What is ‘In Vitro’?
Answer:
‘In Vitro’ literally means ‘In Glass’ taking place in a test tube.

Question 22.
Name the fruit of India which is the largest Producer and Exporter in the world.
Answer:
‘Mango’.

Question 23.
Which is the 0ueen of fragrance spices.
Answer:
Cardamom.

Question 24.
Which state is the largest producer of flowers in India.
Answer:
‘Andhra Pradesh’.

Question 25.
Which is called as the King of flowers.
Answer:
‘Jasmine’.

Question 26.
What is the Scientific name of rice?
Answer:
‘Oryza Sativa’.

Question 27.
Which state is the largest producer of rice in India.
Answer:
‘West Bengal, It contributes 14.24% under total production of rice in India.

Question 28.
Which state is known as the Rice Bowl of India.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Question 29.
What is the Scientific name of wheat.
Answer:
Triticum

Question 30.
Which state is the largest producer of wheat in India.
Answer:
‘Uttar Pradesh’ It share is 32.25%.

Question 31.
What is the Scientific name of Sugarcane.
Answer:
‘Saccharam Officinarum’.

Question 32.
What is the Botanical name of cotton.
Answer:
‘Gossypium’.

Question 33.
Which is called Queen of Beverages.
Answer:
‘Tea’.

Question 34.
What is the Botanical name of Tea?
Answer:
‘Camellia thea’.

Question 35.
Who introduced coffee in India and when.
Answer:
Amuslim Fakir, ‘Babadudan Sahib’ in 17^th Century.

2nd PUC Geography Agriculture Two Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Mention the different names of Migration farming in India?
Answer:
(a) Jhumming in Assam
(b) Koman in Odisha
(c) Ponam in Kerala
(d) Podu in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
What is Mixed Farming? When it has been introduced in India?
Answer:
Raising of food as well as commercial crops and keeping of lives stock is called “Mixed farming”. It has been introduced in 1951.

Question 3.
What are Aus, Aman and Boro?
Answer:

• Aus : Rice is sown in May-June and harvested in September-October. ,
• Aman : Rice is sown in June-July and harvested in November-December.
• Boro : Rice is sown in November to December and harvested in March-April.

Question 4.
Explain the Lowland Rice?
Answer:
Growing of rice in the lowlands or marshy areas by transplanting and use of irrigation particularly densely populated lowlands.

Question 5.
Why wheat is Grown as Rabi crop?
Answer:

• Wheat is basically temperate crop.
• It requires moderate temperature and rainfall that is about 10°C during vegetative period and 15°C at the time of ripening therefore it is grown as rabi crop.

Question 6.
Name the varieties of wheat in India?
Answer:
The varieties of wheat in India are

• Bread wheat
• Macaroni wheat
• Emmer w’heat
• Indian dwarf wheat.

Question 7.
What are the uses of sugarcane?
Answer:

• Sugarcane is the main source of Sugar, Gur and Khandsari.
• It provides raw materials for manufacturing Alcohal.

Question 8.
Black Soil is quiet suitable for cotton cultivation, why?
Answer:

• It keeps the Moisture for the long time.
• This soil is capable of retaining moisture to the crops. Therefore it is quiet suitable for cotton cultivation.

Question 9.
Why tea is considered a labour Intensive crop?
Answer:
It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour for Pruning, Plucking, Processing and Packing purpose. Therefore it is called labour intensive crop.

Question 10.
Explain the Coffee Robusta?
Answer:

• It is the poor in Quality and but high yield variety. .
• It can resists the pest and diseases. About 68.9% of Indian coffee robusta in 2010-11.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Dry farming and Irrigation farming.
Answer:

• Dry farming : Growing of crops in areas which receive scanty rainfall (i.e less than 50cms) for ex: Jowar, bjara, ragi, oil seeds etc.
• Irrigation farming : Cultivation of crops with the help of irrigation is called ‘Irrigation farming’. ‘ .

Question 12.
Write the four important merits of Green revolution.
Answer:

• Increase in Agricultural production and yield per hectare.
• Better land use by employing two or three crop pattern.
• Reduction of imports of food grains.
• Improves country’s Economic status.

Question 13.
Mention any four advantages of plant tissue culture in India.
Answer:

• Freedom from pests and pathogens.
• Rapid Multiplication – Means thousands of plants can be produced with in year starting from a single plant.
• Economy of space and resources and
• Easy transport due to minioturization.

Question 14.
Name the important spices in India.
Answer:
Black Pepper, chillies, ginger, turmeric, garlic & cardamon etc.

Question 15.
Name the methods of rice cultivation in India.
Answer:

• Broadcasting method
• Drilling method
• Transplanting method.

Question 16.
Write any four geographical conditions required for the cultivation of sugarcane.
Answer:

• It required high, temperature & humid climate with average temperature of 27°C to 28°C.
• It requires average rainfall of 100 to 150 cm.
• The alluvial and loamy soil which contain salt and lime is most suitable.
• Cheap means of transport to carry sugarcane to the factory.

Question 17.
What are the uses of Cotton.
Answer:

• It provides raw material for cotton textlile industry.
• It is used for making of carpets, curtains, ropes and stuffing purposes.
• Seeds are used for Edible oil & Vanaspati.
• Cotton cakes used as a fodder for the animals.

Question 18.
Name the Varieties of tea in India.
Answer:

• Bohea or Chinese Variety : It grows at an elevation of more than 1500 meters.
• Assamica : It can be grown at higher elevation about 2400 meters.

2nd PUC Geography Chapter 8 Agriculture Five Marks Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is intensive farming? Explain its main characteristics.
Answer:

• The land holdings are usually small in a thickly populated area, farming is very intensive
  and produced more is known as “Intensive farming”.
• It is a labour and capital Intensive farming.
• Large amount of labour and capital is used on small land holding to get maximum production of crops.
• The available small piece of land is used for cultivation with irrigation facilities through out the year.
• In this system, farmers try to raise two or more crops, with careful tilling of the soil.
• Intensive agriculture is characterized by high yields per unit area and farmers try to get
  the maximum production from small land holdings.
• It is common in the fertile and irrigated parts of the country.
• In this type, agricultural operations are carried on by manual labour and animals.
• Rice is the main crop of Intensive farming.

Question 2.
Explain the chief advantage of Plant tissue culture.
Ans:
The chief advantages of plant tissue culture are as follows:

• Rapid multiplication, means thousands of plants can be produced within a year starting
  from a single explant.
• Freedom from pests and pathogens. It refers to the production of disease free plants & production of disease & pest-resistant plants.
• Economy of space & resources, that thousands of plants can be raised in a few square meters of laboratory space.
• Round the year multiplication as per demand.
• Easy transport due to miniaturization.
• Selective multiplication of desired plants.

Question 3.
Write a note on demerits of Green Revolution.
Answer:
The Demerits of Green Revolution are as follows:

• Degradation of land due to use of heavy chemical fertilizers.
• Weeds have increased, due to more crop rotation pattern.
• Loss of bio-diversity, due to heavy use of pesticides, insecticides and chemical fertilizers.
• Adding chemicals in ground water, will affects our health.
• Excess use of fertilizers has made the soil infertile and may affect human’s health.
• Regional disparities. It means Green Revolution has had an impact on some states. But other states are hardly touched. So far Green Revolution has affected only 40% of the cultivate land in India.

Question 4.
What is Horticulture? Explain its development in India.
Answer:
The word ‘Horticulture’ is the compound word of two Latin words ‘Hortus’ means garden . and ‘Colere’ means cultivate. The art of systematic growing of fruits, vegetables, flowers, spices,plantation crops, medicinal & aromatic plants in small plots is called ‘Horticulture’. Even till today, the income from the horticultural crops has been more profitable than the incomes from the agricultural crops. Therefore, in recent years, special emphasis is given for growing horticultural crops in India.

Development in India:

• In India geographical as well as socio-economic factors are ideal for the development of horticulture. It has good potential for growing a wide variety of horticultural crops.
• The government of India identified horticultural crops as a means of diversification for making agriculture more profitable.
• There has been an improvement in the adoption of technology for increase in the production of horticultural crops. India is second largest producer of fruits & vegetables in the world next to china.
• India produced 257.3 million tonnes of horticulture products from 23.2 million hectares.

Question 5.
Give an account on floriculture in India.
Answer:

• Cultivation of different types of flowers for commercial purpose is known as ‘Floriculture’.
• Floriculture has blossomed into a profitable business only in recent years.
• India’s agro climatic conditions are very suitable for the cultivation of high quality flowers.
• Floriculture has plays a significant role in India for following reasons :
  • It has a capacity to elevate income of the farmers.
  • It engages even the women in this farming and eradicates unemployement to rural people.
  • It supports to the export of the country.
• Considering the potentiality of this sector produces an income & employment opportunities, floriculture has been taken up by the Government of India.
• India has been known for growing traditional flowers such as Jasmine, Mari gold, Chrysanthemum, Tuberose,. Crossandra & Aster. Commercial cultivation of tut flowers like roses, orchids, gladious, carnation, gerbera, lilum & anthyrium has become popular in recent years.
• In India the state of Andhra Pradesh has the maximum area under floriculture & followed by TamilNadu, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana & West Bengal.

Question 6.
Give an account of the production & distribution of rice in India.
Answer:
Rice Cultivation is widely distributed in India. Its cultivation is concentrated in River valleys, deltas, flood plains, low lying coastal areas of North-Eastern & Southern India etc are important rice growing areas.

1. West Bengal : West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.

• About three fourth of the Total state’s cropped area is under the rice cultivation.
• Rice is growing in three seasons. They are called in different names.
  • (i) Aus
  • (ii) Aman and
  • (iii) Boro, Medinipur, Bardhaman 24 parganas, Bankura & Cochbehar are important rice producing districts in the state West Bengal producer 14.2% under total production of Rice in India.

2. Uttar Pradesh : This is second largest producer of rice in India.

• The rice cultivated area is concentrated in Gorakhpur, Basti, Varanasi, Allahabad, Shaharanpur, Azamgarh & Shajahanpur etc are important districts & major rice growing areas.
• Uttar Pradesh produces 13.44% of Rice under total production of Rice in India.

3. Andhra Pradesh : It is the third largest producer of rice in India.

• The delta of Godavari-Krishna & coastal plains are suitable for rice cultivation in the state.
• It contributes 12.3 5 % of Rice under total production of rice in India.

4. Punjab : Punjab is the fourth largest producer of rice in India.

• Amritsar, Patiala, Ropar, Firozepur districts are the major produces of rice in Punjab. Its share 10.11% under total production of Rice in India.

5. Bihar : Bihar is fifth leading producer of rice in India.

• Gaya, Rohtas, Bhajpur, Darbhanga, Champaran, Purenea, Bhagalpur & Patna districts.
  It produces 6.90% under total output of rice in India.

6. TamilNadu: It is the sixth largest producer of rice in India.

• Tirunelveli, Tiruchirapalli, Salem, Madhurai, Coimbatore.
• Its production is 6.61 % under total production of total Rice in India.

7. Chattisgarh : It is the important producer of rice in country.

• Bastar, Bilaspur, Duig, Saiguja, Raipur, Raigarh& Janjgir are the main rice producing districts;
• Its production is 5.78% under total production of Rice in India.

8. Karnataka : Karnataka has rapid progress in rice cultivation during last few years. The important rice producing districts are Raichur, Davangere, Mysore, Bellary, Shimoga, Mandhya & Koppal.

• Its production is 3.87% under total production of Rice.
• Production of rice : India is the second largest producer of rice in the world next to the China. It produceses 104.3 million tonnes of rice during 2011-12, it accounts for 22% of the worlds production. Now India is self sufficient in rice production.

Question 7.
Explain the conditions required for the growth of Wheat & Methods used for wheai cultivation in India.
Answer:
Conditions required for the growth :

• Wheat is basically temperate crop. It is one of rabi crops of India.
• It requires moderate temperature & rainfall. It requires temperature of 10°C during vegetative period & 15°C at the time of ripening.
• Wheat requires annual rainfall of about 50 to 75 cm. In areas of less than 50 cm annual rainfall, irrigation is necessary for its successful cultivation.
• Wheat can grow in a variety of soils. It is also grown in-alluvial soil.
• Light drizzles & cloudiness at the time of ripening help to the better yield.
• Frost at flowing time & hail storm at the time of ripening is harmful to the crop. Methods used for the wheat cultivation :

There are 3 methods used for wheat cultivation in India they are

1. Broad casting method : Scattering of seeds in the prepared hand is called broad casting method.
2. Drilling method : Dropping of seeds into the soil is called drilling method.
3. Dibbling method : Sowing of seeds by hand in ploughed furrows is known as dibbling method.

Question 8.
Give an account of the Distribution & Production of sugarcane in India.
Answer:
Distribution of sugarcane in India : The distribution of sugarcane cultivation in India is uneven. Sugarcane is grown in almost in all the stats of the country. But it is mainly concentrated in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, TamilNadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana & Uttaranchal.

1. Uttar Pradesh : Uttar Pradesh occupies first place both in terms of production & area under sugarcane in the country.

• The largest concentration is upper Ganga-Yamuna doab & Rohilkhand areas which together produce about 70% of the sugarcane produced in the state.
• Its share is about 36.02% under total production.

2. Maharashtra : Maharashtra is in second place both in area & production of sugarcane in the country.

• The production of sugarcane comes from Kolhapur, Pune, Ahmednagar, Nasik.
• Its share is about 22.89% under total production.

3. TamilNadu : TamilNadu is the third largest producer of sugarcane in India.

• It has highest yield per hectare in India.
• Arcot, Periyar, Salem, Tiruchirapalli & Coimbatore are thâ important sugarcanc growing districts.
• Its share is about 10.98% under total production.

4. Karnataka: Karnataka is fourth largest sugarcane producing state in India.

• Most of the Sugarcanc is grown with the help of irrigation.
• Belgaum, Mysore, Mandhva, Bijapur, Shimoga & Chitradurga are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its share is about 10.85% under total production.

5. Andhra Pradesh : Andhra Pradesh is in fifth place of sugarcane production in India.

• West & East Godavari, Vishakapatnam & Nellore are the important sugarcane producing districts.
• Its share is about 4.68% of total production.

6. Others : Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana etc Production:

• India is second largest produces of Sugarcane next to Brazil. –
• The total cultivated area under sugarcane was reported as 5.09 million hectares in 2011-12.
• Theproductionis357.67milliontonnesin2011-12.

Question 9.
What are the geographical conditions necessary for the cultivation of Cotton? Explain the varieties of cotton.
Answer:
Conditions for Cultivation of cotton:

• Cotton is a tropical & Sub-tropical crop. It requires high temperature. At the time of growing it requires 2l°C to 24°C temperature.
• It requires moderate rainfall of 50 cm to 100 cm. However it can cultivate in areas of lesser rainfall with the help of irrigation.
• Deep black soil is well suitable to cotton crop. This soil is commonly known as Black cotton soil. This is capable of retaining moisture.
• Cotton requires the use of Manures & fertilizers crop rotation helps to maintain fertility of the soil & improve the yield.
• Cotton cultivation requires large amount of cheap labours for planting, thinning, seeding, picking of cotton.
• Frosting, Moist weather & heavy rainfall are harmful to the crop.
• Cotton plant is susecptible to disease & pests. Scj’it requires the use of insecticides & pesticides.

The Sunny weather is necessary at the time of harvesting the cotton.
Varieties of Cotton:-

(i) Long Staple Cotton :

• It is the. best variety .
• It has over 3.8 cm in length.
• Because of its length of fibre, fine & shining it is used for making fine & superfine quality of cloth.
• It is largely grown in Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, TamilNadu & MadhyaPradesh etc.

(ii) Medium Staple Cotton :

• The length of cotton fibre is between 2.5 cm to 3.8 cm is known as medium staple cotton.
• It is used for making Medium cloth.
• This is grown in Rajasthan, Punjab, TamilNadu, MadhyaPradesh, UttarPradesh, Karnataka etc. .

(iii) Short Staple Cotton :

• This is inferior variety with fiber length less than 2.5 cm.
• It is used for making inferior quality of cloth, stuffing purpose, blending with synthetic, fibre etc.
• This type of cotton production is reduced in India.
• Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh & Rajasthan etc are growing this type of cotton.

Question 10.
Explain the condition for growth & give reasons for the concentration of coffee cultivation in South India.
Answer:
Conditions for Growth:

• Coffee is a tropical crop. So, it requires hot & humid climate.
• It requires high temperature ranging from 15°C to 30°C.
• Rainfall varying from 150 to 200 cms is necessary & it should be well distributed throughtout the year.
• Coffee plants require deep fertile soil, humus & nitrogenous contained soils are suitable, so cleared up forest land is most suitable for coffee cultivation.
• Coffee plants require shade, because sunrays & strong winds are harmful to coffee plants.
• Hill slopes are suitable for cultivation of coffee plants to avoid stagnant of water.
• Dry weather is necessary’ at the time of ripening of harries.
• Use of manures and fertilizers are required for coffee cultivation.
• Use of pesticides and insecticides are very essential, because coffee plant is susceptible to pests & diseases.
• It requires abundant supply of cheap & skilled labour for various operations.

Reasons for the concentration of coffee in South India :
The Coffee plant was first introduced in lndia by a muslim Fakir, Bababudan Sahib who brought some seeds from Mecca during 17th Century and planted the seedlings in Chandragiri Hills now. It is called Bababudan Hills in Chikmangalur district of Karnataka. Then it was spread to the neighbouring districts of TamilNadu, Kerala & other parts of the country.

Question 11.
Explain the need of Agriculture in India.
Answer:
Agriculture is the most important Primary activity and the oldest occupation of human beings in India.

• Main source of livelihood : About 70% of the people directly and indirectly depend on agriculture for their Livelihood.
• Food supply : Agriculture provides food grains, fruits, vegetables, spices etc to the people and fodder for the animals.
• Provides employment facilities : Agriculture is largest sector providing highest employment.
• Source of National income : It contributes to the national income .of the country.
• Source of raw materials for Agro-based-industries ex:
  Raw cotton, sugar cane and Jute.
• Source of large amount of revenue to the government.
• Support to tertiary sector like transport, communication, banking, insurance etc.
• Help to internal trade like Agricultural products are transported from the area of surplus production to the area scarcity.
• Support to export, many agricutlural products produced in the country are exported i.e. tea, coffee, Jute, Tobacco etc.
• Political & Social situation in the country is determined by the agricultural production

Question 12.
Explain the important stratergies to achieve Green revolution in India.
Answer:
The important stratergies are as noted below:

• High yielding varieties : Which results of short maturing period, double cropping, short stems, resistance to wind damage etc.
• Use of Irrigation : An assured and regular supply of water to crops not only adds to production but also assures stability in production.
• Use of chemical fertilizers : The HYV seeds need a heavy dose of fertilizers along with irrigation to give high yield.
• Use of Insecticides & Pesticides : In order to meet the loss of 10% crop. It requires use of proper doses of insecticides, pesticides & weedicides.
• Role of Public institutions : The national seeds corporations have to setup to promote services to the farmers.
• Guaranteed Minimum Prices : Support Price Policy for food grains was adopted in 1964 all over the country.
• Facilities of agricultural credit: Now Co-operatives, Commercial banks, and regional rural banks extend loans to the farmers on easy terms.
• Rural electrification : It is very essential in modem agricultural system to lift water by tubewell, sprinkler, irrigation etc.
• Rural roads and Marketing : These are very important to connect the villages to the neighbouring markets and urban centres.
• Soil testing : Its main purpose is to know what type of fertilizers and seeds will be more fruitful in different regions .
• Multiple cropping programme : It aims at maximizing production per unit of land and per unit of time by taking two or three crops in a year.
• Farm of Mechanization : It saves on human labour & Quickens farm operations, there by adding to efficiency & productivity.
• Agricultural Universities : Engaged in agricultural research and pass on this information to the farmers.

Question 13.
Explain the Production and Distribution of tea in India.
Answer:
Distribution of Tea in India :
The tea is concentrated largely in Northern part of India. It is mainly grown in Assam.

• Assam : It is the Largest producer of tea in India. Its contribution 53.06% under total output of the country. It stands first in tea area and production of the country. The main tea producing districts are Lakhimpur, Sibsagar, Darrang, Golapar etc.
• West Bengal : It ranks second both interms of area and production. Its share is about 24.57% under the total output. Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri and Coach Bihar are the three important tea producing districts.
• Tamilnadu: It ranks third place of tea production in India. Tamilnadu has the highest yield per hectare in India i.e. 25 quintals. It produces 14.88% under the total production. The Nilgiri and Annamalai hills are the important producers.
• Kerala : It is the fourth largest producer of tea in India and second largest producer in South India. Its share is 5.66% under total output of India. The Kottayam, Kollam, Thiruvanthapuram etc are the leading producer.
• Karnataka : It is also produceses tea in India it share is only 0.46% under the total output. Hassan & Chamrajnagar are important tea producing districts.
• Others : Uttarkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jarkhand, Manipur, Sikkim etc.

Production and trade of Tea in India :

• India is the second largest producer consumer and exporter of tea in the world.
• It accounts for about 28% of the world production and 15% of the world trade.
• Tea area increased from 3.0 lakh hectares into 5.8 lakh hectares, from 1960-61 to 2011-12.
• Tea production is also increased from 3 lakh tonnes to 10.95 lakh tonnes from 1960-61 to 2011 – 2012