Category: Class 10

Students can Download Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers, Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Karnataka State Board Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Karnataka State Syllabus SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

I. In the following questions, four choices are given for each question, choose and write the correct answer along with its alphabet: ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 1.
For some integer n every odd integer is of the form
a) 2n + 1
b) n + 1
c) 2n
d) n
Answer:
2n + 1

Question 2.
The value of sin215° + sin225° + sin265° + sin275° is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer:
2

Question 3.
If chord AB subtends an angle 50° at the centre of a circle then the angle between the tangents at A and B is
a) 40°
b) 100°
c) 130°
d) 120°
Answer:
130°

Question 4.
The formula used to find the volume of a sphere
a) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
b) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
c) \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{3}\)
d) πr³
Answer:
a) \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}\)

Question 5.
α + β are the zeroes of the polynomial x² – 6x + 4, then the value of \(\frac{(\alpha+\beta)^{2}-2 \alpha \beta}{\alpha \beta}\) is
a) 7
b) 8
c) -7
d) -8
Answer:
a) 7
Solution:

Question 6.
If 29th term of an A.P is twice its 19th term, then the 9th term is
a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) 2
Answer:
b) 0
Solution:
T₂₉ = 2T₁₉
a + 28d= 2(a + 18d)
a + 28d = 2a + 36d
0 = 2a + 36d-a-28d
0 = a + 8d
T₉ = 0

Question 7.
In ∆ ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm, BC = 6cm, The angle B is
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 60°
d) 30°
Solution:
AC² = AB² + BC²
12²= (6√3 )² + 6²
144= 108 + 36 144=144
∴ ∠B = 90°

Question 8.
If the probability of an event is P(A) then the probability of its complimentary event will be
a) 1+P(A)
b) 1 – P(A)
c) P(A) – 1
d) 1 / P(A)
Solution:
We know that for any two complimentary events A and Ā
P(A) + P(Ā) = 1 → P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)

II. Answer the following questions : ( 1 × 8 = 8 )

Question 9.
If α and β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2 – 3x – x² then what is the value of α + β + αβ ?
Answer:
α + β = -b/a , αβ = c/a
= \(\frac{-(-3)}{-1}\) αβ = \(\frac{2}{-1}\) = – 2
= – 3
α + β + αβ = -3 -2 = -5

Question 10.
What are the roots of the quadratic equation x² + (√3 + 1)x + √3 = 0?
Answer:
² + (√3 + 1)x + √3 = 0 = 0
x² + x + √3x + √3 = 0
x(x + 1)+ √3 (x + 1) = 0
(x + 1)(x + √3) = 0
x + 1 = 0, x + √3 = 0
x = -1, x = -√3

Question 11.
If the nth terms of the two AP 9, 7, 5, ….. and 24, 21, 18, ……… are same. Find n.
Answer:
9, 7, 5, …….
a = 9, d = 7-9 = -2 T = a + (n – 1)d
T_n = 9 + (n – 1) (-2)
T_n = 9 + (-2n + 2) ‘
T_n = 9 – 2n + 2
T_n = 11 – 2n
24,21,18,
a = 24, d = 21 – 24 = -3
T_n = a + (n – 1) d T=24 + (n – 1)(-3)
T_n = 24 – 3n + 3
T_n = 27 – 3n
Given : nth term of both A. P. is same.
∴ 11 – 2n = 27 – 3n
-2n +3n = 27 -11
n = 16

Question 12.
State A – A criterian theorem.
Answer:
“If two triangles are equiangular, then the corresponding sides are proportional.”

Question 13.
Find the H.C.F of 455 and 42 with the help of Euclid’s division algorithm.
Answer:
Step (1): a = 455 b = 42
a = bq + r
455 = 42 × 1 + 35

Step (2): a = 42, b = 35
a = bq + r
42 = 35 × 1 + 7

Step (3): a = 35, b = 7
a = bq + r
35 = 7 × 5 + 0
∴ H.C.F. (455, 42) = 7

Question 14.
Find θ if sin (θ + 56) = cosθ, where θ and ( θ + 56) are less than 90°.
Answer:
sin (θ + 56) = cos θ
sin (θ + 56) = sin (90 – θ)
θ + 56 = 90 – θ
θ + θ = 90 – 56
2θ = 34
θ = 34/2
θ = 17

Question 15.
If x = a sin θ and y = b tan θ, then find the value of \(\frac{a^{2}}{x^{2}}-\frac{b^{2}}{y^{2}}\)
Answer:
Consider

Question 16.
Calculate the height of a right circular cone where C.S.A. and base radius are 12320 cm2 and 56 cms. respectively.
Answer:

C.S.A of a cone = π rl
12320 = \(\frac{22}{7}\) x 56 x 1
1 = \(\frac{12320 \times 7}{22 \times 56}\)
1 = 70 cm
But 1² = r² + h²
70² = 56² + h²
h2² = 70² – 56²
h² = (70 + 56) (70 – 56)
h² =(126) (14)

III. Answer the following ( 2 × 8 = 16 )

Question 17.
Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1 or 6q + 3 or 6q + 5 where q is an integer.
Answer:
Let nbe any positive, integer using division algorithm,
a = bq + r
Taking a = n, b = 6
n = 6q + r
If any number is divided by 6, then the possible remainders are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5.
∴If n is odd, then r = 1, 3, 5
⇒ 6q + 1, 6q + 3, 6q + 5 are the positive odd integers.

Question 18.
Solve : 2x + 3y = 9
3x + 4y = 5
Answer:

Substitute y = 17 in 2x + 3y = 9
2x + 3(17) = 9
2x + 51 =9
2x = 9 – 51
x = \(\frac{-42}{2}\)
= -21

Question 19.
Solve : (x – 2)² + 1 = 2x – 3
Answer:
x² + 4 – 4x + 1 = 2x – 3
x² – 4x + 5 – 2x + 3 = 0
x² – 6x + 8 = 0 x2 – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
x(x – 4) -2(x – 4) = 0
(x – 4) (x – 2) = 0
x – 4 = 0, x -2 = 0
x = 4 or x = 2

Question 20.
Show that the points (-2, 1) (2, -2) and (5, 2) are the vertices of a right angled triangle.
Answer:

∴ ∆ ABC is a right angled triangle at B.

Question 21.
The equilateral triangles are drawn on the sides of a right triangle. Show that the area of the triangle on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the areas of the triangles on the other two sides.
Answer:


∴ Area of ∆ XAB + Area of ∆ YBC = Area of ∆ ZAC .

OR

In the given figure, PA, QB and RC are each perpendicular to AC. Prove \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{z}=\frac{1}{y}\)
Answer:

Question 22.
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that the sum of the numbers on the faces is neither divisible by 4 nor by 5.
Answer:
S = {(1, 1) (1,2) (1, 3) (1,4) (1, 5) (1, 6) (2, 1) (2, 2) (2,3) (2,4) (2, 5) (2,6) (3.1) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 5) (3,6) (4, 1) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 4) (4, 5) (4,6) (5, 1) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5,6) (6.1) (6,2) (6, 3) (6,4) (6, 5) (6,6)}
n(S) = 36.
An event of getting sum of the numbers neither divisible by 4 nor by 5.
A={ 1,1) (1,2) (1,5) (1,6) (2,1) (2, 4)
(2, 5) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 6) (4, 2) (4,3) (4, 5) (5,1) (5, 2) (5, 4) (5, 6) (6,1) (6, 3) (6, 5)} n(A) = 20
n(A) = 20
P(A) = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{A})}{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{20}{36}\)

Question 23.
Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Take a point P outside the circle without using the centre of the circle, draw to tangents to the circle from an external point P.
Answer:

Question 24.
Prove that (cosecθ-cotθ)² = \(\frac{1-\cos \theta}{1+\cos \theta}\)
Answer:
Consider LHS
(cosecθ-cotθ)² = cosec² θ +cot² θ – 2cosecθ.cotθ

OR

If sinθ + cos θ = √2 sin (90 -θ) determine cot θ
Answer:
sin θ + cos θ = √2 sin (90 – θ)
sin θ + cos θ = √2 cos θ
sin θ = ypi cos θ – cos θ
sin θ = cos θ (√2 -1)
sinθ /cosθ = √2 -1

IV. Answer the following : ( 3 × 9 = 27 )

Question 25.
Asha is 5 times as old as her daughter Usha, 5 years later Asha will be 3 times as old as her daughter Usha. Find the present ages of Asha and Usha.
Answer:
Let the age of Asha be x years
Let the age of Usha be y years
According to question x=5y
x – 5y = 0 …….(1)
Five years later,
(x + 5) = 3(y + 5)
x + 5 = 3y + 15
x – 3y = 15 – 5
x – 3y = 15 – 5
x – 3y = 10 (2)
Substitute x = 5y in equation (2)
5y – 3y = 10
2y = 10
y = 10/2
y = 5
∴ x = 5y
= 5 × 5
x = 25
∴ The present age of Asha is 25 years.
The present age of Usha is 5 years.

OR

The sum of 2 digits of a 2 digit number is 12 the number obtained by interchanging the digits exceeds by the given number by 18. Find the number.
Answer:
Let the two digits be x and y
The 2 digit number will be 10x + y
The sum of digits = x + y – 12 ……..(i)
The number obtained by interchanging the digits =10y + x
= 10x + y + 18
10y + x – 10x – y = 18
9y – 9x = 18
Divide by 9
y – x = 2
y = x + 2 ….(ii)
Consider equation (1)
x + y = 12
Substitute y = x + 2
x + x + 2 = 12 .
2x =12 – 2
2x= 10
x= 5
y = x + 2
y = 5 +2
y = 7
∴ The number is : 10x +y
= 10(5)+7 = 50+ 7
= 57

Question 26.
Find the other two zeroes of the polynomial y⁴ + y³ – 9y² – 3y + 18 if the
zeroes are √3 and -√3
Answer:
y = √3 and y = -√3
(y + √3) = o (y-V3) = o
(y + √3 )(y – √3 ) = o
y(y – √3 ) + √3 (y – √3 ) = 0
y² – √3y + √3 y – 3 = o
y² – 3 = 0

y² + y – 6 = 0
y² + 3y – 2y – 6 = 0
y(y + 3)-2(y + 3) = 0
(y + 3) = 0 & (y – 2) = 0
y=-3 & y = 2
The four zeros of polynomial are √3 , -√3 , -3 & 2

Question 27.
Solve for x.
\(\frac{1}{a+b+x}=\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{x}\) (Where a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0 x ≠ 0, x ≠ -a,-b
Answer:

(-a – b)ab = (a + b)x (a + b + x)
-a²b – ab² = (a + b) (ax + bx + x²)
-a²b – ab² = a²x + abx + ax² + abx + b²x + x²b
-a²b – ab²= a²x + 2abx + ax² + b²x + x²b
-ab(a+b) = ax(a+x) + xb(b+x)+2abx
=x[a(a+x)+b(b+x)+2ab]
=x[a² + ax+b² +bx + 2ab]
= x[(a+b)² + x(a+b)]
-ab(a + b) = x(a+b)[a+b+x]
-ab = x(a + b + x)
-ab = ax + bx + x²
x2 + x (a + b) + ab = 0
x² + ax + bx + ab = 0
x(x+a) + b(x + a) = 0
(x + a) (x +b) = 0
=>x + a = 0, x + b = 0
=> x = -a, x = -b

OR

The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60m more than the shorter side. If the larger side is 30m more than the shorter side, find the sides of the field.
Answer:
Let the shorter side of the rectangular field be x m.
Longer side is x + 30 and the diagonal is x+60

In ∆ ABC,
AC² = AB² + BC²
(x + 60)² = ( x + 30)²+ x²
x² + 3600 + 120x = x² + 900 + 60x + x²
x² + 900 + 60x – 3600 – 120x = 0
x² – 60x – 2700 = 0
x² – 90x + 30x – 2700 = 0
x(x – 90) + 30(x – 90) = 0
(x – 90) (x + 30) = 0
x – 90 = 0, x + 30 = 0
x = 90, x = – 30.
∴ The shorter side = x = 90m
The longer side = x + 30 = 90+30 = 120m.

Question 28.
If the points (7, -2) (5, 1) and (3, 5) are collinear. Find the value of k.
Answer:
Since the give points are collinear, the area of the triangle formed by them must be O i.e.
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [x₁(y₂-y₃) + x₂(y₃-y₂) + x₃(y₁-y₂)]
x₁ = 7, x₂ = 5, x₃ = 3
y₁ = – 2, y₂ = 1, y₃ = k
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7(1 – k) + 5 (k + 2) + 3(-2-1)] = 0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7 – 7k + 5k + 10 – 9]-0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [7 – 2k + 1] = 0
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [8 – 2k] = 0
8-2k = 0 or 2k=8
k = 8/2 = 4
k = 4

OR

Find the area of Rhombus if its vertices are (3, 0) (4, 5) (-1, 4) and (-2, -1) taken in order.
Answer:

Area of rhombus = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) d₁ × d₂
Let A = (3, 0) B = (4, 5)
C = (-1, 4) D = (-2, -1)
Diagonal

Question 29.
Prove the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Answer:

Data: A is the centre of the circle B is an external point.
BP and BQ are the tangents.
AP, AQ and AB are joined.
To prove that: a) BP = BQ
b) ∠PAB-∠QAB.
c) ∠PBA = ∠QBA
Proof: In ∆ APB and ∆ AQB
AP = AQ [Radii of same circle]
∠ APB – ∠AQB = 90°
AB = AB [common side]
∴  ∆ APB ≅ ∆ AQB [RHS]
a) PB = QB
b) ∠PAB = ∠QAB
c) ∠PBA = ∠QBA

Question 30.
Find the area of the shaded region in the figure, where ABCD is a square of side 14 cm
Answer:

Area of square ABCD
= 14 × 14=196 cm²

Hence, area of the shaded region
= Area of square – Area of four circles
= 196 – 154
= 42cm²

OR

Find the area of the shaded regions. Given PQRS a square of sides 14cm. Soln: S R
Answer:

Question 31.
The following table gives the weight of 120 articles :

Change the distribution to a “more than type” distribution and draw its ogive.
Answer:

Question 32.
The distribution below gives the weights of 30 students of a class. Find the median weight of the students.
Weight (in kg)

Answer:

Question 33.
Construct a right triangle whose hypotenuse and one side measures 10cm and 8cm respectively. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 4/5 times the corresponding sides of the triangle .
Answer:

V. Answer the following ( 4 × 4 = 16 )

Question 34.
Solve the pair of equations graphically.
x + y = 8 and x – y = -2
Answe:
x + y = 8
y = 8 – x

x – y = -2
x = -2 + y

x = 6/2 = 3
x + y = 8
3 + y = 8
y = 8 – 3
y = 5

Question 35.
Devide 20 into four parts which are in arithmetic progression and such that the product of first and fourth is to the product of second and third in the ratio 2:3.
Answer:
Let the four parts in A.P be :
a – 3d, a – d, a +d, a + 3d
Their sum = (a – 3d) + (a – d) + (a + d) + (a + 3d) = 20
⇒ 4a = 20 or a = 5
Also, it is given that

or 75 -27d² = 50 – 2d²
25d² = 25 .
⇒ d² = 1 or d = +√1 = ±1
When a = 5, d = 1, the four parts are 2, 4, 6,8
When a = 5, d = -1; the four parts are 8, 6, 4,2
Hence the four parts are (2, 4, 6, 8) or (8, . 6,4,2)

OR

The angles of a quadrilateral are in AP such that the greatest is double the least calculate all the angles of the quadrilateral.
Answer:
Let the quadrilateral be ABCD
The angles of the quadrilateral are in AP.
∴ The four angles are A, B, C and D which are a -3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d respectively.
⇒ The least angle is a – 3d and the greatest angle is a + 3d.
It is given that
a + 3d = 2(a – 3d)
a + 3d = 2a – 6d
2a – a – 6d – 3d = 0
a – 9d ……(1)
9d = a
But ∠A + ∠B+∠C + ∠D = 360°
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a +.3d = 360°
4a = 360 / 4 = 90°
But 9d = a
d = \(\frac{a}{9}=\frac{90}{9}\) = 10°
∴ ∠A=a- 3d = 90 – 3(10) = 90 -30 = 60°
∠B = a – d = 90 – 10 = 80°
∠C = a + d = 90 + 10= 100
∠D = a + 3d = 9 + 3(10) = 90 + 30 = 120

Question 36.
A person on the lighhouse of height 100m above the sea level observes that the angle of depression of a ship sailing towards the light house changes from 30° to 45°. Calculate the distance travelled by the ship during the period of observation. (Take √3 ≈ 1.73)

Answer:
P is the top of the light house PQ. We are given that its height PQ = 100m PX is horizontal line through P
∠APX = 30° and ∠BPX =45°
Then, ∠PAQ =30° and ∠PBQ = 45°
Suppose, AB = x metre and BQ = y metre
Karnataka SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 with Answers – 40
⇒ x + y =100√3 = 100√3 = 100× 1.732
⇒ x +y = 173.2
⇒ x + 100 = 173.2
⇒ x = 73.2
Therefore, the distance travelled = 73.2m

Question 37.
Prove that “the ratio of areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their altitudes.
Answer:

Data : ∆ABC ∼ ∆DEF
∠A = ∠D
∠B = ∠E
∠C = ∠F
\(\frac{A B}{D E}=\frac{A C}{D F}=\frac{B C}{E F}\)
T.P.T : \(\frac{\text { Area of } \Delta \mathrm{ABC}}{\text { Area of } \Delta \mathrm{DEF}}=\frac{\mathrm{AB}^{2}}{\mathrm{DE}^{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{AC}^{2}}{\mathrm{DF}^{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{BC}^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
Construction:Draw AM ⊥ BC and AN ⊥ EFim

VI. Answer the fallowing : ( 5 × 1 = 5 )

Question 38.
The radii of the circular ends of the frustrum of height – 6cm are 14 cm and 6cm respectively. Find the lateral surface area and total surface area of frustrum.
Answer:
R = 14cm, r = 6cm and h =6cm
Now, let 1 be the slant height of the frustrum;

Now, lateral surface area of the frustrum
= π(R + r)l
= π (14 + 6) 10
= 628.57 cm²
And total surface area of the frustrum = π[(R+r)l + R²+ r²]
= π [(14 + 6)10 + (14)² + (6)²]
= π(200 + 196 + 36)
= π(432)
= 1357.71 cm².

Consumer Education and Protection Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Question 1.
The other name of the Consumer is ______________
Answer:
user

Question 2.
Person giving goods or services for money is called ______________
Answer:
provider

Question 3.
The Consumer Day is observed on ______________ every year.
Answer:
March 15

Question 4.
In the case of compensation exceeding 5.00 lakhs, the complaint has to be submitted to the ______________
Answer:
District Forum

II. Answer the following questions in one word or sentence each

Question 1.
Who is called a consumer?
Answer:
Consumer is a person who buys goods or hires or avails services for a consideration called Price or Wages.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Consumer Movement?
Answer:

• The Act accords importance for safety and quality.
• Avoiding production and sale of dangerous goods.
• Prevention of Trade Malpractices in the market.
• Supervision on Quality, Weights, Measures and Price.
• Compensating the consumers in case of any problem arising as a result of trade.
• Creating awareness to the consumers through Consumer Education.

Question 3.
What is the Right of every Consumer?
Answer:
The right of every consumer is to get quality goods and services.

Question 4.
When did Consumer Protection Act come into force in India?
Answer:
1986

Question 5.
Who appoints the President of the District Consumer Forum?
Answer:
State Government.

III. Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each

Question 1.
What are the problems faced by consumer?
Answer:
Cheating over charging defective goods etc.

Question 2.
What are the causes for consumer exploitation?
Answer:
During the past the Producers were supplying goods directly to the consumers e.g- milk, fruits, vegetables etc., without any hindrance of middlemen. When agricultural occupations developed, it changed the marketing methods. The direct transactions between the producer and consumer has almost stopped.

The Price Fixation of the goods and services was done mainly by the middle men. It led to many hindrances. Consumers had to undergo various difficulties and problems. They incurred many losses. The development of information technology has led to Tele shopping Through Tele shopping the consumer can sit at home and directly buy the goods from the traders.

Question 3.
Mention the four important aims of the Consumer Protections Act.
Answer:

• The Right to Protect: against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property of the consumers.
• The Right to Information: information about the quality, quantity, purity, standard etc, to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices.
• Right to Choice: Wherever possible access to variety of goods at competitive prices.
• Right to be Heard: The interests of the consumers to be heard with due consideration,
• Right to seek Redressal: Against the unifair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation.
• Right to Consumer Education: The Consumer are to be educated about their rights.
• Right to stop: exploitation
• Right to healthy: environment that is good physical environment to enhance the quality of their life.

Question 4.
What are the major functions of the Consumer Protection Council?
Answer:
1. Functions of consumer protection councils

2. Providing speedy redress to consumers complaints through negotiation, mediation and conciliation; Seeking ways and means of removing from

3. The markets hazardous products and causing offenders to replace such products with safer and more appropriate alternatives; Publishing from time

4. To time list of products whose consumption and sale have been banned, withdrawn, severally restricted or not approved by the Federal Government.

5. Causing an offending company, firm, more appropriate alternatives; Publishing from time

6. To time list of products whose consumption and sale have been banned, withdrawn, severally restricted or not approved by the Federal Government.

7. Causing an offending company, firm, trade association or individual to protect, compensate, provide relief and safeguards to inured consumers]

8. Or communities from adverse effects of technologies that are inherently harmful, injurious, violent or highly hazardous; organizing and undertaking

9. Campaigns and other forms of activities that will lead to increased public consumer awareness;

10. Encouraging trade, industry and professional associations to develop and enforce in their various fields, quality standard designed to safeguard

11. The interest of consumers; Issuing guidelines to manufacturers, importers, dealers and wholesalers in relation to their obligation under the CPC

12. Enabling law;

13. Encouraging the formation of voluntary consumer groups or associations for consumers well being; Ensuring that consumers interest receive due

14 Consideration at appropriate for a and providing redress to obnoxious practices or the unscrupulous exploitation of consumers by companies, films,

15 Trade associations or individuals;

16. Registering and monitoring products, services and sales promotions in the market place.

Question 5.
Mention three stages of Consumer Courts.
Answer:

1. District Forum
2. The State Commission
3. The National Commission.

Question 6.
What are the methods to follow to file a complaint in consumer court?
Answer:
The methods to be followed to ‘ file a case in consumer court :

• There is no prescribed proforma to file a case.
• The complaint may be typed one or hand written.
• The complaint should include the name of the person (complainer), Full address and Telephone Number.
• The person or organization against whom the complaint is made should be, mentioned clearly with address.
• The particulars of the goods by which the loss has incurred and the amount of loss should be. specified clearly. The bill or receipt should be enclosed O There is no fees or stamp duty for the complaint
• No advocate or lawyer is required. The consumer himself/herself can argue.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on District Forum.
Answer:
District Forum: There shall be a forum at each district. A qualified district judge nominated by the state government president over the deliberations. It entertains the complaints where the value of goods and services is less than Rs. 20 lakhs. There shall be two members of whom one shall be a woman.

Question 2.
Which court does a consumer approach for complaints exceeding 20 lakhs?
Answer:
The State Commission.

Question 3.
Who appoints the president of the National Commission?
Answer:
The Central Government

Question 4.
Mention some Consumer Protection Acts in India.
Answer:
Essential Commodities Act, Weights and Measures . Act, Act against Adulteration of Food Articles; The Government of India Act 1965 are some consumer protection acts implemented by the Government.

Question 5.
What is tele shopping?
Answer:
The consumers instead of going to traders can place order for the goods which are advertised over Television and other media. Through Internet, SMS or Telephone consumers can place the order for the goods selected. Payment can be made after receiving the goods at door. This transaction is called Teleshopping.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The person who supplies goods in services is
(a) Provider
(b) Consumer
(c) manufacturer
(d) middle man
Answer:
(a) Provider

Question 2.
Consumer movement started in India in
(a) 1956
(b) 1905
(c) 1985
(d) 1972
Answer:
(b) 1965

Question 3.
‘World consumers day’ is celebrated on
(a) March 15th
(b) March 18th
(c) March 1st
(d) March 22nd
Answer:
(a) March 15th

Question 4.
Which Act of India promotes consumer Right?
(a) Essential Commodities Act
(b) Weights and Measures Act
(c) Adulteration of Food Articles Act
(d) Consumer Protection Act
Answer:
(d) Consumer Protection Act

Question 5.
‘Consumer Movement’ first began in
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) England
Answer:
(c) USA

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Globalization of Business Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Discuss the following questions in group and then answer.

Question 1.
What is Globalization? Explain
Answer:
Globalization a new phenomenon to business field, the period between 1970 and 1913 played a growing trend towards globalization. But after 1980 Globalization achieved a great progress in the economic reforms of developing countries. Of late the achievements in technology, communication and Internet communication systems have made large business units as global units that mean the activities of these large business units are not confined only to the place where they are established but spread all over the world.

As a result of this the close relation and interdependence among the countries of the world has increased and market have become world wide units.

Question 2.
“Globalization is the worldwide economic movement” substantiate your answer.
Answer:

• Globalization is the increasing cross border movement of goods and services.
• International flow of capital, technology and information
• Formation of one worldwide market by obtaining raw materials and other resources from cheap market
• Production of goods in any region of the world at cheaper cost.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of Globalization?
Answer:

• Globalization promotes economic growth and generates a wider range of products and services.
• Globalization helps to increase the standard of living of the people
• Globalization has made the availability of the similar type of products all over the world.
• Globalization increases the GDP of a country.
• Globalization has helped in increasing the income of the people
• By buying the products from other countries, customers are offered a much wider choice of goods and services.
• Globalization creates competition for local firms and thus keeps the costs down.
• Globalization promotes specialization. Countries can begin to specialist in those products that are best at making.
• Economic interdependence among different countries can build improved political and social links.

Question 4.
Make a , list of the characteristics of Globalization.
Answer:
Main characteristics of Globalization:

• Increases international trade at a faster rate for the growth of world economy.
• Increases the international flow of capital including foreign investment.
• Globalization creates international agreements leading to organizations like to WTO and OPEC (Oil Producing and Exporting Countries)
• Development of global Financial system.
• Increases the role of international organizations such as WTO. WIPO (World intellectual Property Organization) IMF (International Monetary Fund), etc., that deal with international transactions.
• Increases economic practices like outsourcing by multi¬national corporations.
• Creates international cultural exchange.
• Spreading of multi¬culturalisation and better individual access to cultural diversity.
• Creates international travel and tourism.
• Greater immigration including illegal immigration.
• Spread of local foods such as Pizza and Indian food to other countries.
• Development of global telecommunications infra¬structure and greater transfer- border data flow.
• Use of technologies such as exchange of data technology, Internet communication satellites and cell phones improves.

Question 5.
Explain the negative aspects of Globalization with examples.
Answer:
Disadvantages of Globalization (Negative impacts of Globalization)
Though it is true that the globalization has brought new dimensions to this world and people are mingling with each other more freely and professionally, there are certain challenges one need to face in accepting the new-u-tum… some of the negative impacts of globalization are as follows.

1. In order to cut down costs, many firms in developed nations have outsourced their manufacturing and white collar jobs to Third-World countries where the cost of labour is low. Globalization has also led to an increase in activities such as child labour and slavery.

2. Globalization has resulted in a fiercely- competitive global market with the embarrassment of unethical practices in business dealings.

3. It is also observed that globalization helped terrorists and criminals.

4. Globalization has expanded the growth and development of cities which has been reduced to garbage-dumps where all the industrial waste is accumulated and pollution levels are sky-high.

5. Fast food chains like McDonalds and KFC are spreading fast in the developing world. People have started consuming more junk food. This results in the degradation of health and spread of diseases. The traditional family attached food habits are being slowly disappearing.

6. Another comment leveled is that the rich are getting richer and the poor are struggling for a square meal.

7. Some of the deadly viral diseases such as AIDS and CANCER, Dengue fever etc., Spread all over the world.

8. Globalization has led to environmental degradation.

9. The amount of raw materials needed to run industries and factories is taking a heavy toll on the natural reserves of planet earth and pollution has severely impacted the quality of air that we need so much for our survival.

10. The other challenges of globalization are cheap imports of goods from developing nations could lead to unemployment in developed countries whefe the cost of production is high.

11. Further it leads to Increased competition for infant industry, and Small scale industries and by dumping’ of goods by certain countries at below cost price may harm industries in other countries.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the factors which include in Globalization.
Answer:
Globalization refers to the worldwide phenomenon of technical, economic, political and cultural exchanges, brought about by modern communication, transportation and legal infrastructure as well as the political choice to consciously open cross-border links in the international trade and finance.

Globalization encourages international ‘capital and trade overcoming the political barriers among the countries.
Globalization creates free trade zone by removing the import and export duties.

Through container service in shipping, globalization reduces the transportation expenses.
Globalization helps to reduce the restriction on capital investment or fully removes the barriers on capital flow.

Globalization creates subsidies to the worldwide trade organization.
Globalization creates harmonization of intellect property laws across the majority of states which have more restrictions.
Ex: Some patent goods of China are found in some prominent business houses of America.)

Question 2.
Write a short note on World Trade Organisation.
Answer:
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. WTO office is located at Geneva in Switzerland, established on 1st January 1995. At present 149 countries of the world are the members of WTO. The members meet once in two years to take decisions.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The’World Trade Organisation’ came into existence in
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1993
(d) 1995
Answer:
(d) 1995

Question 2.
The mediator in administering world trade agreements is
(a) UNO
(b) World bank
(c) World trade organization
(d) International Monetary Fund
Answer:
(c) World trade organization

Question 3.
The growing economic interdependence of countries world wide is a result of
(a) Industralization
(b) Computerization
(c) Globalization
(d) Communication .
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 4.
Unemployment in developing countries has increased’due to
(a) automation
(b) computerization
(c) competition
(d) globalization
Answer:
(d) Globalization

Question 5.
The expansion of WIPO is
(a) World industrial production organization
(b) World intellectual property organization
(c) World Infrastructure protection organization
(d) World import promotion organization.
Answer:
(b) World intellectual property organization

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Entrepreneurship Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Question 1.
The word entrepreneur has come from the French word _____________
Answer:
Entreprende

Question 2.
The process of action, an entrepreneur undertakes to establish an enterprises is called _____________
Answer:
Entrepreneur

Question 3.
The person who developed Apollo Group of hospitals was _____________
Answer:
Dr. Prathap Reddy

Question 4.
The Chairperson of Wipro is _____________
Answer:
Azim Premji

II. Discuss the following questions in group and then answer

Question 1.
Who is an Entrepreneur?
Answer:
‘Enterpreneur’ is an inventor of new ideas and business processes.

Question 2.
“Entrepreneurship is a creative activity”. How?
Answer:
Entrepreneurship is a creative activity. It is the ability to create and build something. It is a knack of sensing the opportunity where others see chaos, contradiction and confusion.

Entrepreneurship is the attitude of mind to seek opportunities, take calculated risks and derive benefits by setting up a venture which comprises of numerous activities involved in it. Entrepreneurship is a philosophy. It is the way one thinks, one acts and therefore in can exit in many situtations, let it be business or government or in the field of education, science and technology or proverty alleviation or any others.

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of Entrepreneurship?
Answer:

• Creativity
• Innovation
• Dynamism
• Leadership
• Team building
• Achievement motivation
• Problem solving
• Goal orientation
• Decision making
• Self Confidence

Question 4.
Explain the importance of an Entrepreneur.
Answer:
Entrepreneurs occupy a central position in a market economy. They serve as the “Spark plug” in the economy’s engine, activating and stimulating all dynamic activities for the economic progress of a nation and to spread its activities worldwide. So they must be encouraged and rewarded. A society become prosperous only when it rewards and encourages the Entrepreneurial activities because they are the critical determinants for success, prosperity, growth and opportunity in the economy.

The most dynamic societies in the world are those that have more entrepreneurs. Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by moblising the idle savings of the public. They employ their own as well as borrowed resources for setting up their enterprises. Such type of Entrepreneurial activities tends to value addition and creation of wealth, which is very essential for the industrial and economic development of a country.

It is the Entrepreneurial energy, creativity and innovation that trigger the produciton and sale of new product and services. It is the Entrepreneur, who undertakes the risk of the enterprise in search of profit and seeks opportunities to earn profit and strives hard to satisfy the needs.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the major role played by Entrepreneur in the economic developmetn of a country.
Answer:
1. Entrepreneur promote capital formation by mobilizing the idle savings of the citizens. They employ resources for setting up their enterprise.

2. Entrepreneurs provide large scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals.

3. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the Gross Domestic product (GDP) and Per Capita Income.

4. Entrepreneurs encourage effective mobilization of skill, bring in new products and services and develop market for the growth of the economy.

5. Entrepreneurs enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

6. Entrepreneurs promote development of Industries. They help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.

7. Entrepreneurs contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.

8. Entrepreneurs promote country’s export trade.

9. Entrepreneurs work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.

Question 2.
Mention some self – employment opportunities for an Entrepreneur.
Answer:

• Advertising Agencies
• Marketing Consultancy
• Industrial Consultancy
• Equipment Rental and Leasing
• Photo copying centres
• Industrial Research and Development
• Industrial Testing Labs.
• Internet Browsing/Setting up of Cyber Cafe.
• Installation and Operation of Cable and T.V. Network
• Creche and Beauty Parlours.

Question 3.
What are the functions of an Entrepreneur?
Answer:

• Entrepreneur starts business activity by preparing various plans relating to business
• He organises factors of production.
• He takes decisions about product, technology, marketing employment etc.,
• He co-ordinates things effectively
• He introduces new methods into practice.
• He handles budget of his concern
• He bears risk and uncertainty.
• He gives directions to the business firm and ensures its effective operation.

Question 4.
Name any five financial institutiuons that provide loans for an Entrepreneur.
Answer:
Some of the important financial institutions are :

1. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
2. National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development (NABARD)
3. Export and Import Bank (EXIM BANK)
4. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
5. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
6. Industrial Credit & investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
7. Industrial Re-construction Bank of India.
8. Commercial & other Banks.
9. State Finance Corporations.

Question 5.
How do promotional organisation support entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Government at State and Central level has introduced many measures to support the growth and development of entrepreneurs. A number of promoting agencies and institutions have been setup to help emerging entrepreneurs to start especially, small 86 medium scale enterprises. These institutions support the entrepreneurs in respect of training, financing and marketing.

Question 6.
Name any five promotional organisations established by the government.
Answer:

• District Industrial Centres (DIC’s)
• Small Industries Development Corporation Ltd. (SIDC)
• National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC)
• Small Scale Industries Board (SSIB)
• Small Industries Service Institutions (SISI)
• Industrial Estates (KIADB)
• Khadi & Village Industries Corporation (KVIC)
• Technical Consultancy Organisations (TCO)

Question 7.
Write a brief profile of ‘Narayan Murthy’ of infosys Technologyes Ltd.
Answer:
‘Narayan Murthy’ is one of the founders of “Infosys Technologies Ltd”. in 1999. Infosys became the first Indian company to be listed on NASDAQ (National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations.) By 2006, the company employed over 50000 people and had a turnover of two billion dollars. Murthy has always believed that honesty, transparency and moral integrity are the key factors for the success.

Question 8.
Write a brief profile of any one of women entrepreneur’s of Karnataka.
Answer:
Kiran Mazumdar Shah: She is the Chairman and Managing Director of Biocon Ltd., the largest Bio-technology company in India. She started Biocon in 1978 in a rented garage, faced with variety of problems and challenges because bio-technology was a new field and a woman entrepreneur promoted such an enterprise was very rare. She crossed over all entrepreneurial barriers and made Biocon a success.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An inventor of new ideas and business Process is
A. Self employed
B. Scientist
C. Entrepreneur
D. Employed
Answer:
C. Entrepreneur

Question 2.
The process of an individual establishing his Enterprise is
A. Team Ship
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Friendship
D. Leadership
Answer:
B. Entrepreneur

Question 3.
The important characteristic of an Entrepreneur is
A. Creativity
B. Sensibility
C. Productivity
D. Ability
Answer:
A. Creativity

Question 4.
The process of creating some thing new is
A. Creativity
B. Skill development
C. Innovation
D. Dynamism
Answer:
c. Innovation

Question 5.
A Tea – Seller is
A. Entrepreneur
B. Self – employed .
C. Small – businessman
D. Employed
Answer:
b. Self – Employed

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Banking Transactions Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Question 1.
The words ‘Bank’ has been derived from the French word ___________ .
Answer:
‘Banque’

Question 2.
The Banker’s Bank is ___________.
Answer:
‘Mother ‘ of Banks’

Question 3.
An example for Nationalised bank is ___________.
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 4.
The National saving certificates are issued by ___________.
Answer:
Indian Postal Deportment

Question 5.
The type of account where any number of transactions can be made in a day with Bank is ___________ .
Answer:
Current Account

Question 6.
The deposits for a fixed term can be deposited in ___________ account.
Answer:
Term of Fixed Deposit Account

II. Answer the following questions after discussion with your friends.

Question 1.
What is a bank?
Answer:
Banks are financial institutions which use the money deposited by customers as investments and have agreed to return it whenever the customers require their money.

Question 2.
List out the characteristics relating to bank transactions.
Answer:
The characterises of a Bank are:

• Dealing with Money
• Individual / Firm or Company
• Acceptance of Deposits
• Lending Loans
• Payment and with drawal
• Agency and utility service
• Profit and servile Orientation
• Ever increasing function
• Connecting Link
• Banking Business
• Name Identity

Question 3.
What are the functions of a bank?
Answer:
Functions of Banks are :
(a) Accepting deposits from public and others.
(b) Lending money to public (Loans) and other institutions.
(c) Transferring money from one place to another (Remittances)
(d) Collecting money on cheques, drafts and bills.
(e) Discounting of bills.
(f) Hiring safe deposit lockers.
(g) Conducting foreign exchange transactions.
(h) Keeping valuables in safe custody.
(i) Issuing letters of credit and guarantee
(j) Conducting government transactions (State & Central)

Question 4.
Explain the relationship between the banker and its customers.
Answer:
Relationship between Bankers and customers :
The relation between a banker and customers falls under two broad categories, namely-
1. General relationship
2. Special relationship

1. General relationship

• Primary Relationship (Debtor and creditor relationship).
• Subsidiary Relationship (Trustee and beneficiary relationship.)
• Agent and Principal Relationship

2. Special relationship

• Obligation to honour cheques.
• Obligation to maintain secrecy of accounts.

Question 5.
“The number of saving bank account holders is increasing” – Give reasons.
Answer:

• Saving accounts encourages the habit of saving among the people who have an income
• Banks provide many facilities and services for saving account holders such as Electronic fund transfer, Gold Loans, etc.
• The money is safe in a bank account and prevents unnecessary expenses.
• If money is needed urgently, it can be withdrawn at a convenient ATM at their own convenient time.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of opening a bank account?
Answer:

• Bank account facilitates safe custody of money.
• Bank account helps in making payments.
• Bank account helps in collection of money.
• Bank account holders get advances and loans.
• Bank account helps in smooth financial transactions.
• Bank account holders can get safe deposit locker facility.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are banks important for the development of a country?
Answer:
The development of any country depends on the efficient banking system of that county. Banks advance money to agriculture, industries, traders and all other sections of the society which are the main organs for the development of a county and accelerate the growth of the country.

Question 2.
Define ‘Banking Company’?
Answer:
A Banking company may be defined as a company which transacts the business with finance.

Question 3.
Write a ‘note on Reserve Bank of India?
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is known as mother of banks or Bankers Bank or Central Bank of India. All banking transactions in India are controlled by the RBI. The RBI formulates the monetary policy which should be followed by all banks.

Question 4.
Mention the financial services provided by the ‘Indian Postal Department’ through post offices.
Answer:
The Postal Department provides various financial services such as Post Office savings Bank, Issue of National Savings certificate, Kisan Vikas Patra; monthly recurring deposits, Postal Life Insurance, Pension Payment, Money transfer etc.

Question 5.
Make a list of different types of Bank specialized in different type of activities.
Answer:

• The Important types of Banks are:
• Central Bank or Reserve Bank of India.
• Commercial Banks
• Industrial Development Banks
• Land Development Banks
• Indigenous Banks (Money lenders or Sahukars)
• Co-operative Banks

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The money deposited in a bank can be withdrawn by the customer using?
(a) Cheque
(b) Challan
(c) Debit Card
(d) Money transfer
Answer:
(a) Cheque

Question 2.
Banking Transactions in India are controlled by
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Canara Bank
(d) Vijaya Bank
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India

Question 3.
Other than banks which other government department also provides financial services.
(a) Department of Education
(b) Department of Co-operation
(c) Indian Postal Department
(d) Railway Department
Answer:
(c) Indian Postal Department

Question 4.
If you need to invest is National Savings Certificate you have to approach
(a) Agriculture Department
(b) Finance Department
(c) Education Department
(d) Postal Department
Answer:
(d) Postal Department

Question 5.
The Bank Account from which money can be deposited or withdrawn any number of times is
(a) Term and Fixed Deposit Account
(b) Recurring Deposit Account
(c) Current Account
(d) Savings Account
Answer:
(C) Current Account

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Public Finance and Budget Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Question 1.
The government manages the public finance through ______________ policy
Answer:
Fiscal policy

Question 2.
When the government’s revenue is more than its expenditure, it is called ______________ budget
Answer:
surplus

Question 3.
The person who presents the Central Government Budget in the Lok Sabha is ______________
Answer:
Finance Minister

Question 4.
GST came into effect from ______________
Answer:
1st July 2017

II. Answer the following in one sentence each

Question 1.
What is meant by Public Finance?
Answer:
The study of public finance helps in the analysis and evaluation of a country’s ‘Budget’.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Budget?
Answer:
The statement of estimated income and expenditure of a year prepared by the Government is called ‘Budget’.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of Deficit Budget.
Answer:
A budget which hasT expenditure more than the revenue is a ‘Deficit Budget’.

Question 4.
What are Direct Taxes?
Answer:
The tax paid by an individual on whom it is levied its Direct Tax’ ex: Income tax, Stamp duty etc.,

Question 5.
Write the formula for calculation of fiscal deficit.
Answer:
Fiscal Deficit = (Revenue receipts + Won debt capital receipts) – Total expenditure.

III. Answer the following in five to six sentences each

Question 1.
Explain the reasons for increase in public expenditure.
Answer:
The expenditure incurred by public authorities like cental, state and local governments to satisfy the collective social wants of the people is known as public expenditure. It is incurred on various activities for the welfare of the people and also for the economic development, especially in developing countries.

Question 2.
What types of taxes are imposed by the government?
Answer:
The taxes imposed by the central government are of two types :
a) Direct Taxes: When the tax is paid by an individual on whom it is levied, it is called direct tax. The burden of this tax is not transferable to others. The important direct taxes are personal income tax, corporate tax, wealth tax, stamp duty etc.

b) Indirect Taxes: If the burden of tax imposed by the government is transferable to others, it is called Indirect Tax. Generally, indirect taxes are imposed on goods and services. For example the government imposes tax on the manufacturer of goods and services at the time of producing such goods and services. The manufacturer transfers this burden to the trader. The trader transfers this burden to the consumer.

This means that if the government imposes tax on the producer, the tax is ultimately paid by the consumer. The main forms of indirect taxes are central excise duty, value added tax (VAT), import-export taxes and service tax etc. However, with effect from 1st July 2017, a single goods and service tax (GST) has been introduced.

Question 3.
What is the percent expenditure on interest payments in 2017-18 budget?
Answer:
The expenditure on Interest payments in 2017-18 budget was Rs. 5, 23,078 crores.

Question 4.
Explain the aspects of non-tax revenue of the central government.
Answer:
The ‘Non-Tax Revenue’ of the Government are –

• Profit earned by the Reserve Bank of India;
• Profit generated by the Indian Railways”
• Revenue generated by the Departments of Post and Telecommunications’
• Revenue generated by the public sector industries;
• Revenue generated by the coins and mints
• Various types of fees and penalties; etc.

Question 5.
What is deficit? Mention the types of deficits.
Answer:
Deficit is the gap between income and expenditure of the government The concepts of deficit are

• Fiscal deficit
• Revenue deficit
• Primary deficit
• Budget deficit

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is ‘Public expenditure’?
Answer:
The expenditure incurred by public authorities like central, state and local governments to satisfy the collective social wants of the people is known as public expenditure. It is incurred on various activities for the welfare of people and also for the economic development, especially in developing countries.

Question 2.
What is ‘Public Revenue’?
Answer:
‘Public Revenue’ is the income mobilized by the Government for purposes of financing Governments activities.

Question 3.
Explain ‘Tax Revenue’
Answer:
Tax is described a compulsory payment by citizens to the government without expecting any direct benefit in return. The Central Government imposes several types of taxes. Taxes are the major sources of revenue for the government. The government imposes higher rate of taxes on high- income group and lower rate of taxes of low-income group.

The poor are exempted from income tax. Similarly, a higher tax is imposed on luxury goods and services used by the rich; and a lower tax on goods and services used by the common people. This is called as progressive taxation.

Question 4.
What is ‘Capital Revenue’?
Answer:
Capital revenue refers to thosereceipts which either create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the government. For example, borrowings lead to an increase in the liability for the government; Similarly receipts from sale of shares of public enterprises leads to reduction in assets of the governments; hence, they are called as capital receipts.

Question 5.
What is ‘Public Debt’?
Answer:
The government borrows money from internal and external sources. The loan obtained from citizens of the country, banks, financial institutions and industries is called internal debt. The loan obtained from foreign governments, foreign financial institutions and international financial institutions is called foreign or external debt.

Question 6.
What is Revenue deficit? Write the formula to calculate Revenue deficit?
Answer:
Revenue deficit is excess of total revenue expenditure of the government over its total revenue receipts. It is calculated as :
Revenue Deficit = Revenue receipts – Revenue – Revenue Expenditure

Question 7.
What is primary deficit? Write the formula to calculate primary deficit?
Answer:
Primary deficit is defined as fiscal deficit of current year minus interest payments on previous borrowings. It is calculated as:
Primary Deficit is the = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment

Question 8.
What is Budget deficit? Write the formula to calculate Budget deficit?
Answer:
Budget deficit is the overall gap between revenue and expenditure during a given year. It is calculated as:
Budget Deficit = Total Revenue – Total Expenditure.

Question 9.
Deficits are a disadvantage for the economy of a country. Explain.
Answer:
High amount of deficits are not goods for the economy as they create liabilities and uncontrolled deficit and indicates financial indiscipline on the part of the government. It also increases inflation. That is why to check such practices of the governments, the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) was passed in 2003. It seeks to instill financial discipline, reduce fiscal deficit, improve macroeconomic management and the overall management of the public funds by moving towards a balance budget.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In India deficit financing is used d) for raising resources for
(a) Economic development
(b) To pay public debt
(c) To reduce revenue deficit
(d) To reduce external debt 3.
Answer:
(a) Economic development

Question 2.
Fiscal deficit in the budget is
(a) Excess of Governments expenditure over its revenue receipts
(b) Excess . of total revenue expenditure over total revenue receipts
(c) Capital deficit plus revenue deficit
(d) Total revenue minus total expenditure.
Answer:
(a) Excess of Governments expenditure over its revenue receipts

Question 3.
The revenue generated by the Government through taxes and non-tax sources is
(a) Capital revenue
(b) Tax revenue
(c) non-tax revenue
(d) external borrowing
Answer:
(b) Tax revenue GST Means

Question 4.
GST Means
(a) General State Tax
(b) General Sales Tax
(c) Goods and Service Tax
(d) Government Sales Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Service Tax

Question 5.
Tax paid by an individual is
(a) Revenue receipt
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Direct tax
(d) Non-tax revenue
Answer:
(c) Direct Tax.

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Money and Credit Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the. blanks with suitable answers

Question 1.
Barter is exchange of goods for ___________________
Answer:
goods

Question 2.
Cheque is a ___________________ form of money.
Answer:
paper

Question 3.
The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year ___________________
Answer:
1935

Question 4.
The currency of Japan is ___________________
Answer:
Yen

Question 5.
Government of India nationalized 14 commercial Banks in ___________________
Answer:
1969

Question 6.
Narrow money comprises of ___________________ and ___________________
Answer:
Notes, Coins

Question 7.
Inflation occurs when supply of money is ___________________ than the availability of goods and services in a country.
Answer:
higher

II. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is Barter System?
Answer:
The exchange of goods for goods without the use of money is called Barter System.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning and functions of money.
Answer:
Money is anything which is widely accepted in Payments for goods or in discharge of other business obligations’ – Robertson (English Economist)

We can buy goods and services using money because it is a commonly accepted means of payment; measure;, and store of value.

Functions of money.
Primary or main functions: The important primary functions of money are:
(a) Medium of exchange or means of payment: Money is used for selling and buying goods and making corresponding payments.

(b) Measure of Value: The prices of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money only. This makes it easier to determine the value of goods and services with a common unit.

Secondary functions: The important secondary functions of money are

(a) Standard of deferred payments: They ease the future transactions too. A borrower is under an obligation to pay a specified sum of money on a specified future date. Similarly, a person buys now agrees to pay a stated amount of money on a future date. Use of money facilitates such future payments.

(b) Store of value: Since the future value is assured, money has made it possible to save or store wealth for future and help in its accumulation,

(c) Transfer of value: The introduction of money has made the exchange of goods to distant places possible. The ease of transferring purchasing power from person to. person and place too has expanded trade and commerce.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of RBI Functions of RBI
Answer:
1. Monopoly of Note issue: RBI has the monopoly of issuing currency notes of Rs. 2-and above, namely Rs. 5, Rs. 10, Rs. 20, Rs. 100, Rs. 200 Rs. 500 and Rs. 2000. One Rupee is issued and circulated buy RBI on behalf of the Central Government.

2. Banker to Government: The RBI accepts the deposits of Central and State Government, collects money (like taxes and other charges) and also makes payments on behalf of the Government. It issues Government bonds, Treasury bills and also acts as financial adviser to the Government. RBI also extends loans advances to central and state governments as and when necessary.

3. Banker’s bank: It also acts as the bank for all banking institutions in the country. All. the banks of the country have to keep a predetermined part of. their deposits as reserves with the RBI. Whenever banks need additional money RBI provides credit to them. It regulates the activities of the banks and guides them in monetary managements.

4. National Clearing House : RBI acts as the clearing house for settlement of transactions across banks. This functions helps banks to settle their inter banks claims easily.

5. Controller of credit: The RBI regulates the amount of credit issued by the banks, according to the monetary situation of the country.

6. Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: The RBI also the custodian of foreign exchange reserves of the country through which it manages the foreign exchange rates. In order to reduce the fluctuations in exchange rate, it resorts to buying and selling of foreign currencies.

7. Promotion of. Banking Habits: The RBI promotes saving through branch expansion of the banking system in unbanked areas and financial literacy programmes.

RBI has been playing an important role in framing the development strategy of Indian Economy, It has a rich tradition of data collection, generating useful economic research, and knowledge sharing. The Reserve Bank’s measures have helped the nation to withstand many financial crises.

Question 4.
Explain the various concepts of money supply used in India
Answer:
In India, four measure of money supply are used to measure the monetary stock, viz., Ml, M2, M3 and M4, They are defined as follows:

Ml = currency notes and coins A net demand deposits held in commercial banks:
M2 =M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings Banks;
M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial bank; and
M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings banks.
For the purpose of monetary . management, M1 and M2 are referred ‘ to as narrow money, and M3 and M4 10th Std. Social Science as broad money.

Apart from this money supply, the banks engage in credit creation which adds to the total money available in the economy. This money supply and the available supply of goods and services, affects the demand for them and therefore, their prices. Thus, a higher supply of! money without concomitant supply of goods would lead to a situation of inflation nor a period of rising prices.

Mild increase in prices is like tonic to the economy, but if the same is very rapid or high, it is not good for economic growth. It affects the purchasing power of individuals and income distribution in the country, the sentiments of investors, and the overall investment.

In order to regulate the price situation, the RBI varies the supply of currency. It also regulates the credit lending by banks through certain measures. The measures taken to regulate credit, overall money supply in the economy and interest rates are together called as the Monetary Policy.

Question 5.
Discuss the various credit control methods adopted by RBI
Answer:
Credit control Measures: These are broadly classified into two types, namely
(a) quantitative control measures, and
(b) qualitative or Selective control measures

A. Quantitative control measures: The quantitative credit control measures directly affect the quantity or money available to the business and people. They comprise of the following:

1. Bank Rate Policy: The bank rate is the rate at which the RBI lends funds to banks. This affects the are at banks can lend to its borrowers. Higher the bank rate, lower the credit creation and vice-versa. RBI also varies the Repo Rate and reverse Repo Rate affecting the interest rate on short term borrowings and deposits, respectively, by the commercial banks, thereby affecting their capacity to lend.

2. Open Market Operations: Open market operation is the buying and selling of government securities by the central bank from and to the banks. The sale of government securities to banks reduces their reserves and vice-versa.

3. Varying Reserve Requirement (Legal Reserve Ratio): Banks are obliged to maintain reserves the central bank in two accounts. One is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the other is Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). The ratio of their deposits, which the banks are required to keep with RBI, is the CRR. The minimum cash which the banks have to keep with themselves as a ratio of their deposits is the SLR. By varying these and SLR and RBI can vary the lending capacity of banks.

B. Qualitative or selective control measures:
The qualitative of selective control measures affect the usage of credit for different purpose. They affect the quality of usage of credit. Important qualitative instruments of credit control are:

1. Change in lending margins: Collateral security is required for obtaining any loan. The percentage value of the security required to be kept with the bank for getting loan is called as the margin. Margin against a particular security is reduced or increased in order to encourage or of discourage the flow of credit to a particular sector.

2. Ceiling on credit or credit rationing: The RBI fixes maximum amount of credit given to a particular use or sector. The rationing of credit is done to prevent excessive expansion of credit.

3. Moral suasion: Moral suasion is , a method of persuading the Commercial banks to advance the credit or reduce the credit to certain activities, The RBI does this through periodical letters and circulars to the banks.

4. Direct Action: Direct control consists of the measures taken by the central bank against commercial banks and financial institutions when all other methods prove ineffective.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the evolution of Paper money ?
Answer:
The metallic coins were unsafe to carry from one place to another. Therefore, traders began to carry the written documents issued by well known financiers as evidence of the quantity of money at their command. The written documents were not actual money, but were accepted and exchanged for money. When such documents were issued by governments, they were called as ‘promissory notes’ or currency. Later on the central banks established by the governments started printing notes that had the guarantee of the government.

This paper money became legal tender that is the legally acceptable money. No individual can refuse the legal tender in that respective country. The legal tender is called as Rupee in India; Dollar in the USA; Pound in England; Euro in Europe; Yen in Japan; Yuan in China, etc.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of Banking money?
Answer:
As trade and commerce flourished bankers started issuing instruments for still easy transaction. Cheques, drafts, deposit (Credit) receipts etc., thus, came to be used as money. These help inn transactions as well as transfer of money between persons and places.

Question 3.
What is e-money?
Answer:
Money transactions done through electorate means is called e-money.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of using plastic money?
Answer:
Credit cards and debit cards issued by various banks are referred to as plastic money. The use of these cards has made transactions and transfer of money easier. The need for carrying large amount of cash does not arise at all. Moreover we can withdraw our money from the nearest ATM, whenever We require money.

Question 5.
What is a Ranking Company’?
Answer:
‘Banking’ is defined as ‘Accepting; for the purpose- of lending or investment of deposits of money from the public repayable or otherwise withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise.’

Question 6.
What does, the term ’Banking’ mean?
Answer:
‘Banking’ is defined as Accepting; for the purpose of lending or investment pf deposits of money from the public repayable or otherwise withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise.

Question 7.
Discuss the importance of Banks
Answer:
Banks play an important role in economic development. They mobilize the savings of the public and make these available for investors, thereby helping the process of capital formation. Banks provide a convenient way of remittance (transfer) or money through the accounts of the customers. Banks offer higher rates of interest on fixed deposits.

They give loans to the borrowers at lower rates of interest. They also discount the bills of exchange. They lend money to agriculture, industry and service activities for their development. They issue demand drafts, credit, cards, debit cards. The banks also invest the funds on securities of the government.

Question 8.
Why is there a need to regulate, money supply?
Answer:
Currency notes and coins issued by the monetary authority of the country form the money supply in a country at any given -time. Apart from currency notes and coins, the balance in sayings or current account deposits is also considered as money. Because these savings can be withdrawn at short notice and the bank is liable to pay it on demands, they are called as demand deposits. Other deposits having a fixed period maturity are called as time deposits. The currency and demand deposits forms the total money in circulation with the public at any point of time.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Exchange of goods for goods without the use of money is
(a) Banking
(b) Barter
(c) credit
(d) debit
Answer:
(b) Barter

Question 2.
The ‘Legal Gender’ in India is
(a) Rupee
(b) Yen
(c) Dolar
(d) Yawn
Answer:
(a) Rupee

Question 3.
The ________________ of all goods and services are expressed in terms of money.
(a) Quantity
(b) Quality
(c) value
(d) fineness
Answer:
(c) value

Question 4.
Reserve Bank of India was established in the year
(a) 1932
(b) 1933
(c) 1934
(d) 1935
Answer:
(d) 1935

Question 5.
Rupee note is circulated by RBI on behalf of the Government of India
(a) Thousand rupees
(b) Two hand rupees
(c) ten rupees
(d) one rupee
Answer:
(d) one rupee

Question 6.
The rate at which RBI Sends money to its client against Gov¬ernment securities is
(a) Reverse Repo Rate
(b) Repo rate
(c) Cash reserve ratio
(d) legal reserve ration
Answer:
(b) Repo rate

Question 7.
The minimum cash which banks have to keep with themselves as a ratio of their deposits is
(a) Statutory liquidity ratio
(b) Cash reserve ratio
(c) Legal reserve ratio
(d) Collateral security
Answer:
(a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Rural Development Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers

Question 1.
The true development of India is the development of its village’. This was told by ____________
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhiji

Question 2.
After the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution ____________ level of panchayat institutions have come into existence.
Answer:
three

Question 3.
Panchayat institutions operate under ____________ principles.
Answer:
Grama Swarajya

Question 4.
The ____________ have been brought into existence in order to bring together poor rural women and make them financially independent.
Answer:
Women self help groups.

II. Answer in a sentence each:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of ‘Rural Development’.
Answer:
Rural development refers to a process of economic and social upliftment of rural areas. It may be defined as overall development of rural areas to improve the quality of life of rural people. It is an integrated process, which includes social, economic, political and spiritual development of the poorer sections of the rural society.

Question 2.
What is meant by decentralisation?
Answer:
Providing administrative power the responsibility of developing the village to people themselves is called decentralisation.

Question 3.
Name the three levels of panchayat raj institutions.
Answer:
The three levels of Panchayat Raj System are

1. Gram Panchayat
2. Taluk Panchayat
3. Zilla Panchayat

Question 4.
Mention any two housing programmes.
Answer:

1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
2. Ambedkar-Valmiki Housing programme
3. Ashraya Yogana

III. Answer the following questions in five to six sentences each

Question 1.
How is the economic situation in the rural areas of India?
Answer:
Even after 70 years of independence, the rural areas are scenes of deprivation and backwardness as nearly one-third and rural population lives in abject poverty. The development programmes and plans have failed to improve the socio-economic conditions of rural areas.

There is a wide spread feeling that the development strategies that the Indian government adopted after independence promoted industrial and urban development. The rural industries which were already declining in importance, further disintegrated due to the competition from modern industries.

With agriculture being non-remunerative and employment not being, regular, the rural people continued to migrate to cities. The liberalization and globalizatin policies deepened these problems by promoting growth in industrialization, urbanization and service sectors.

Consequently, poverty has increased among the rural people who depend mainly on agriculture. Though 60% of the people work in the primary sector, the contribution from this sector to the national income is very less, and is declining over the yeas. Due to this, the gap between urban and rural areas is widening.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the significance of rural development.
Answer:
Since rural development includes agricultural and non-agricultural development it contributes not only to rural but also to the overall development of the country. Increased farm incomes will create greater demand for industrial products and services, thereby generating additional employment and leading to an expansion of those sectors alsb. With increased literacy and skill levels higher productivity could be achieved.

Better health also resulted in higher work participation by the people and increased output. Agro-processing, small scale and cottage industries will develop leading to gradual transformation of the villages. With this, migration to facilities will be reduced. All these contribute toward reduction of poverty.

Question 3.
Explain Gandhiji’s concept of ‘grama Swarajya’ in the light of decentralization.
Answer:
Providing administrative power and the responsibility of developing the village to people themselves is called decentralization. It is a process through which power sharing occurs and people participate in decision making. It is also a process that aims at planning and development from below. This process was called as ‘Grama Swarajya’ by Mahatma Gandhi. Decentralization reduces various kinds of exploitation, upholds human independence and dignity, and nutures human values like compassion and co-operation.

The Panchayat Raj system has beefi rejuvenated in India in order to promote decentralization. The Government of India enacted the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1993, which established a uniform system of Panchayat Raj institutions throughout the country. The Act conferred Constitutional status to the Panchayat institutions.

Question 4.
What is the role of panchayat raj institutions in rural development?
Answer:
Panchayat raj institutions (PRIs) play key role in enabling the rural people to participate in rural development. They are responsible for implementing various schemes related to poverty alleviation and livelihood security, besides providing public amenities. They provide the rural community with basic facilities of roads, drains, drinking water, street light, toilets, school and hospital buildings, market-yards etc.

Through encouragement of primary and middle school educationn, adult education, technical and vocational training, and expansion of health and hygiene facilities, Panchayats have also attempted to develop human resources.

The gram sabha is an important body of a Gram Panchayat. It is compulsory to condutct gram sabha meeting at least once in six months. All the adults who are in the voters list of the village are the members of the gram sabha. All developmental schemes are decided in the gram sabha itself.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Make a list of activities that are essential for rural development.
Answer:
The activities essential for Rural Development are:
1. Development of human resources including: ’

• Literacy, especially, female literacy, education and skill development;
• Health, addressing both sanitation and public health;

2. Land reforms

3. Development of the productive resources of each locality;

4. Infrastructure development like electricity, irrigation, credit, marketing, transport facilities including construction of village roads and feeder roads, facilities for agriculture research and extension, and information dissemination; and

5. Specific programmes of alleviation of poverty

Question 2.
What are the predominant fuctions of Panchayat Raj Institutions (PRI’s)
Answer:
The predominant functions of Panchayat Raj Institutions are :

• To engage in local planning
• To prepare village development schemes during its open meetings. Eg: School facilities, drinking water supply, primary health care, veterinary dispensary like roads etc.
• To implement Rural development programmes.
• Such as Rural employment programmes: MGNREGS, Poverty Alleviation Programme, Housing programmes, Ashraya Yojana etc.
• To strengthen public distribution system.
• To identify aged people, disabled widows, mentally retired people and to implement social welfare programme.
• To form Women Self-help groups’ for empowerment of women.
• To conduct social and cultural activities.
• To nurture rural productive activities of Agriculture cattle rearing, poultry, Fishery, Social forestry.
• Improvement of irrigation system by construction of ponds, tanks etc.
• Maintenance of minor irrigation works, desalting of banks
• To improve Rural and Cottage Industries.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The percentage of rural population in 2001 was
(a) 84.86%
(b) 86.48%
(c) 68.84%
(d) 48.68%
Answer:
(c) 68.84%

Question 2.
Economic and Social upliftment of village.
(a) Rural development
(b) National development
(c) Economic development
(d) Cultural development
Answer:
(a) Rural development

Question 3.
The prime reason for Rural backwardness is
(a) Illiteracy
(b) Poverty
(c) Slow growth rate of agriculture
(d) Competition from industries
Answer:
(c) Slow growth rate of agriculture

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Development Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers:

Question 1.
Economic development is a ____________
Answer:
Process

Question 2.
The value of goods and service produced in year is called as ____________
Answer:
National

Question 3.
In an underdeveloped country, basically the ____________ is lower.
Answer:
Per capita income

Question 4.
Human development indicates expansion of ____________
Answer:
human welfare

Question 5.
The ____________ is responsible for publishing global Human Development Reports.
Answer:
UNDP

Question 6.
India ranked ____________ in HDI in 2014.
Answer:
135

Question 7.
Sex ratio was ____________ in India in 2011.
Answer:
945

II. Answer the following questions in five to six sentences each

Question 1.
Define development and explain the process of development.
Answer:
“Economic development is a process whereby an economy’s real national income increase over a long period of time”
-Prof. Meier and Baldwin.

The term ‘process’ here refers to the operation of the forces that bring about changes in supply of factors of production and, in the structure of demand for the products. Changes in factor supply take place due to discovery of additional resources, education and skill development, capital accumulation, population growth, adoption of better techniques of production, etc. Demand for products changes due to change in size and composition of population; level and distribution of income; tastes etc. These changes contribute to an increase in national income.

Question 2.
What do you mean by under developmemnt? What are its causes?
Answer:
‘Under development’ denotes a backward and stagnant situation where levels of living of people are low due to lower level of per capita income and lower productivity levels, apart from high population growth.

Question 3.
What is HD I? How is it calculated?
Answer:
HDI means ‘Human Development Index’; It is a measure of economic development and economic welfare. HDI examines three important criteria of economic developments. Life expectancy, education and income levels and uses this to create an overall score between 0 and 1.

‘1 ’ indicates a high level of economic development and ‘0’ a very low level of development.

HDI Combines
1. Life Expectancy – Average life expectancy compared to a Global expected life expectancy.

2. Education Index:

• Mean year of schooling
• Expected years of schooling

3. Income Index: Per Capita Income
The average of these three indicators is the ‘Human Development Index’

Question 4.
Examine the causes for low HDI of India.
Answer:
Shows HDI of India in 2012 was calculated at 0.554 and placed at 136th rank out of 186 countries. This HDI value of 0.554 is the result of 65.8 years of life expectancy, $3203 of per capita income and 4.4 years of average years of schooling.

India’s life expectancy has been about 66 years since 2010, It has neither increased or decreased.
The per- capita income has increased but lags behind many countries.

India’s Education Index is pathetic at 4.4 years of schooling.

Hence the parameter of education Index lowers the HDI ranking to very low levels i.e., 0.344 to the rank of 136 out of 186 countries.

Question 5.
How to achieve gender equality?
Answer:
The steps to achieve gender equality are

• To provide social, economic, educational and political equality to women.
• Equality of freedom and opportunities to both men and women
• To increase the sex ratio.
• Compulsory free education for girl child.
• To provide reservations for women in all spheres of life
• Improvement of health of women and girl-child.
• Promote participation of women in economic activities.
• Empower women by enacting laws beneficial to their welfare.

Question 6.
“Women self help groups are supportive to women empowerment” Justify.
Answer:
In order to promote participation of women in economic activities and thereby achieve economic empowerment, Self Help Groups (SHGs) are being formed in all the villages and cities. A SHG is a group of women (usually 20) who come together to share their meagre resources, obtain external support, undertake business jointly and earn income. They are trained in managing accounts, handling bank transactions and skills to take up remunerative income generating activities. SHGs have been instrumental in helping women to earn, save and spend at their willingness. Their dignity and autonomy has increased.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘Real National Income”.
Answer:
National income is the total value of all goods and services produced in a country during one year. It is an important measure of development. Higher the national income, higher is the economic development and vice-versa. But the emphasis is on the word “real” which refers to the purchasing power of income. The prices have tendency to rise over time. When we estimate the income based on the increased prices, the values or incomes are inflated. We should remove that increased price effect to arrive at the ‘real’ increase in income. This price adjusted income reflects the true purchasing power of income. This emphasizes the importance of maintaining price stability in promoting development.

Question 2.
What is ‘Economic Development?’
Answer:
Economic Development is an improvement in Economic welfare – Prof. Colin Clark

Question 3.
What is meant by Economic Welfare
Answer:
Economic Welfare is the availability of all the goods and services which are used by the individuals of a country

Question 4.
What is ‘Inclusive Development’
Answer:
Ensuring that every person is benefitted by the process of development is ‘Inclusive Development’

Question 5.
What are the objectives of ‘Economic Development’
Answer:

• Increasing Income
• Attaining equality
• Reducing poverty, unemployment and inequality
• Conserving resources and environment
• Enhancing overall welfare of all

Question 6.
Name some highly developed countries
Answer:
USA, Canada, Japan, Germany, England, Australia, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia, China

Question 7.
According to the United Nations which is the criteria to term a country has ‘Underdeveloped’
Answer:
According to the United Nations, an underdeveloped country is one whose real per capita income is lower than that of the USA, Canada, Australia and Western Europe. Emphasis here is on the low income level relative to the advanced countries.

Question 8.
Define ‘Developing country’
Answer:
The underdeveloped nations capable of development and are making serious efforts to overcome their problems of low income and poverty, are called as the ‘developing countries’.

Question 9.
How does the ‘World Developrment Report’ classify the economics of the country of the World?
Answer:
The World Bank in its ‘World Development Report’ classifies the countries as high, medium and low income countries, and all countries with ‘middle and low income are referred to as developing countries. India is a prominent developing country that has recorded significant rise in income since 1990s.

Question 10.
Define ‘National Income’
Answer:
National Income is the income of all the people residing in a country

Question 11 .
’The use of National Income to determine economic development of countries is in-correct’ Explain.
Answer:
Income used here is the national income, which is defined as the income of all the people residing in a country. Higher the income, higher is the development. However, economic progress in a couontry will be slower, if the population expands along with the increase in national income. Therefore, comparison of economic development between countries with different levels of population will not be correct. Hence, per capita income is being used as an indicator of development instead of national income. It is the average income of each individual in the country, which is calculated as national income divided by total population, in a given year.

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who said ‘Economic development is a process whereby an economy’ real national income increases over a long period of time’
a. Prof. Meier and Baldwin
b. Prof. Colin Clark
c. Prof. Amarthya Sen
d. Prof. Maham U1 Haq
Answer:
a. Prof. Meier and Baldwin

Question 2.
The total value of all goods and services produced is a country during one year is
a. Per capita Income
b. Real national Income
c. Human development Index
d. National Income
Answer:
B. Real National Income

Question 3.
The availability of all goods and services which are used by individuals of a country is
a. Economic Development
b. Economic Welfare
c. Economic Growth
d. Economic Equality
Answer:
b. Economic Welfare

Question 4.
‘Real National Income’ refers to
a. Availability of Resources
b. Value of all Goods and Services
c. Purchasing power of Income
d. Capital Accumulation
Answer:
c. Purchasing power of Income

Question 5.
The most developed country in the world is
a. India
b. Germany
c. USA
d. China
Answer:
c. USA

Question 6.
When we divide the National Income of a country by the total population, we get
a. Human Development Index
b. Gender Inequality Index
c. Per Capita Income
d. Real National Income
Answer:
C. Per Capita Income

Question 7.
The ‘Human Development Index’ is constructed by
a. UNESCO
b. UNICEF
c. UNSC
d. UNDP
Answer:
d. UNDP

10th Class Social Science Question Answer

Indian Population Class 10 Questions and Answers KSEEB 10th Social Science

I. Fill in the blanks appropriate answers

Question 1.
As per 2011 Census the total population of India was ________________ Crores.
Answer:
121.01. crores

Question 2.
The total population of India accounts for ________________ percent of the world’s population.
Answer:
17.5%

Question 3.
The most populous state in India is ________________
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 4.
Among the Union Territories ________________ the smallest population.
Answer:
Lakshadeep

Question 5.
In India ________________ State has the lowest density of population.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

II. Discuss in groups and answer the following

Question 1.
What is meant by population?
Answer:
The total number of people living in particular area is called ‘Population’

Question 2.
Define the term ‘density of population?
Answer:
The number of people per sq km is called ‘Density of population’

Question 3.
What are the main causes for the growth population in India?
Answer:
Many factors are responsible for the growth of population in India. The main reasons are as follows :
1. High birth rate: This is the main factor in repaid growth of population in India. Reasons for high birth rate are early marriage, religious and social attitudes, polygamy, poverty, illiteracy, tropical climate etc.

2. Low death rate: This is another factor in population growth. The main reasons for the low death rate are improved medical facilities, control of epidemics, lower infant mortality, spread of education etc.

Question 4.
What is the impact of population growth in India?
Answer:
The rapid growth of population has posed several problems. The most important among the are : Unemployment, shortage of food and malnutrition, burden on civic and social amenities, low percapita income, slow economic development, political unrest, poverty, low standard of living, environmental pollution etc.

Question 5.
Mention the main factors influencing the distribution of population in India.
Answer:
The factors affecting distribution of population are :

• Physical features
• Climate
• Soils
• Resources
• Industries and Commerce

Question 6.
Explain the reasons for low density of population in India in some areas.
Answer:
Various factors such as geographical, political socio-economical factors influence the distribution of population in India.

The Mountain and Hilly areas are sparsely populated because of the harsh cold weather in these areas.

Hot regions such as Thar desert is sparsely populated due to the hot and arid weather condition Infertile sandy soil regions of India have low population density.

Supply of water, tourism and good security of life and property also influences the population density of a region. Regions where there is no Industrial development are sparsely populated.

Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you thi nk the population growth of India was slow during 1901-1921.
Answer:
The main reasons of slow population growth in 1901-1921 was high death rates due to diseases, epidemics and lack of medical care.

Question 2.
The distribution of population in India is uneven. Give reason?
Answer:
The distribution of population in India is uneven due to varied geographical and cultural factors.
The distribution of population in India is uneven. This is due to varied geographical and cultural factors.

Among the states Uttar Pradesh is the most populators. (19.92 crores.) In contrast Sikkim has the smallest population (6.1 lakh.) Among the Union Territories the highest population is in Delhi (1.67 crore) and Lakshadweep has the smallest population (64.429)

The sparsely populated areas are the Himalayan region central highlands, Thar deserts and Islands. On the’ other hand the densely populated areas are located the Gangetic plain, coastal plains urban and industrialized areas.

Question 3.
Which region in India has the highest density of population. Explain.
Answer:
The northern great plains and. the western and eastern Coastal Plains have high density of population in India.

The fertile alluvial soils of the great plans is suitable for agriculture and perennial rivers drain these plains. Moreover these plains are rich in minerals and power resources and are highly industrialized and commercial urban centres.

The coastal plans are highly commercial regions with ports and harbours conducting indigenous trade and International trade. Hence these regions are densely populated.

Question 4.
Which is the most populous state in India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh (19.95 crores)

Question 5.
Which is the least populated state in India?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The state with highest population density in South India is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra
(c) Kerela
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(c) Kerela

Question 2.
IN 2011, the total population of India was
(a) 121.01 crores
(b) 101.12crores
(c) 211. 10 crores
(d) 112.01crores
Answer:
(a)121.01 crores

Question 3.
The main factor of rapid growth of population in India is
(a) Low death rate
(b) Industralisatian
(c) Globalization
(d) High birth rate
Answer:
(d) High birth rate

Question 4.
The region of lowest population density in India is
(a) Coastal region
(b) Himalayan region
(c) Thar desert
(d) Great plains
Answer:
(c) Thar desert

Question 5.
The population density in Karnataka is
(a) 414
(b) 394
(c) 319
(d) 308
Answer:
(c) 319

10th Class Social Science Question Answer